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CCRN Simulator

CCRN exam prep — 2,093 practice questions, every answer explained

Prepare for the CCRN (Adult) exam with 2,093 practice questions sorted into the six areas of AACN’s current test plan, each with a full explanation. Take a three-hour practice test at the real exam’s pace, or answer the free readiness check on this page with no signup.

Try CCRN practice questions

5 practice questions, one at a time · every answer explained · no signup.

Question 1 of 5⏱ 0:00

A postoperative patient who underwent coronary revascularization has a central venous pressure of 14 mm Hg, systemic blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg, heart rate of 110 beats/min, and diminished urine output. The nurse recognizes that normal central venous pressure is 2 to 6 mm Hg and that this patient's elevation indicates which primary pathophysiologic state?

Pick an answer

The 5 CCRN practice questions — with answers

Every answer, and why each option is right or wrong. Practise them one at a time in the simulator above.

Question 1

A postoperative patient who underwent coronary revascularization has a central venous pressure of 14 mm Hg, systemic blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg, heart rate of 110 beats/min, and diminished urine output. The nurse recognizes that normal central venous pressure is 2 to 6 mm Hg and that this patient's elevation indicates which primary pathophysiologic state?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg · diminished urine output

  • A Severe absolute hypovolemia caused by uncorrected surgical hemorrhage
  • B Right ventricular failure or severe intravascular volume overload
  • C Systemic arterial vasodilation secondary to early septic shock
  • D Isolated left ventricular hypoperfusion with normal right chambers
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Central venous pressure normally measures 2 to 6 mm Hg; elevated values reflect right ventricular failure or hypervolemia.

B is correct.Normal central venous pressure ranges from 2 to 6 mm Hg (or 3 to 8 cm H2O). A central venous pressure of 14 mm Hg represents marked elevation, which indicates right ventricular failure or severe intravascular volume overload, as backpressure accumulates in the right atrium and systemic venous circulation. In the setting of hypotension, tachycardia, and oliguria following cardiac surgery, an elevated central venous pressure strongly points toward right ventricular failure, right ventricular infarction, or cardiac tamponade restricting right-sided filling. Systemic arterial vasodilation secondary to early septic shock produces low or decreased central venous pressure due to venous pooling, reduced venous return, and relative hypovolemia. Severe absolute hypovolemia caused by uncorrected surgical hemorrhage produces a significantly low central venous pressure below 2 mm Hg due to inadequate circulating intravascular volume. Isolated left ventricular hypoperfusion with normal right chambers would present with normal central venous pressure alongside elevated pulmonary artery occlusion pressure. Recognizing hemodynamic trends enables the critical care nurse to guide targeted fluid and inotropic therapies.

Question 2

A patient with a documented history of major depressive disorder is admitted with severe diabetic ketoacidosis. The patient is alert, fully oriented, articulates the lethal risks of untreated ketoacidosis, and refuses insulin therapy. The medical team considers overriding the refusal due to the psychiatric diagnosis. Which statement accurately reflects decision-making capacity?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: severe diabetic ketoacidosis · alert, fully oriented

  • A Surrogate decision makers must approve all care refusals.
  • B Psychiatric diagnosis automatically invalidates medical consent capacity.
  • C Patients with depression can possess treatment refusal capacity.
  • D Involuntary psychiatric admission immediately strips legal patient autonomy.
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

A diagnosis of psychiatric illness or depression does not inherently invalidate a patient's clinical capacity to refuse medical treatment.

C is correct.Clinical decision-making capacity is decision-specific and time-specific; having a psychiatric diagnosis, such as major depressive disorder, does not automatically eliminate a patient's legal or ethical right to refuse medical therapies. If a patient is alert, comprehends the clinical situation, grasps the risks and consequences of treatment refusal (including fatal outcomes), and can communicate a reasoned choice, they possess decision-making capacity. Claiming that a psychiatric diagnosis automatically invalidates medical consent capacity is a widespread clinical misconception; mental illness impairs capacity only when active psychiatric symptoms distort reality and impair understanding of the immediate clinical decision. Stating that surrogate decision makers must approve all care refusals is incorrect because surrogate decision-makers are consulted only when a patient lacks clinical capacity or has been formally adjudicated incompetent. The assertion that involuntary psychiatric admission immediately strips legal patient autonomy is erroneous because civil commitment does not strip individuals of their constitutional right to refuse medical interventions unless specific legal criteria for emergency involuntary treatment or guardianship are met.

Question 3

A patient with an anoxic brain injury is being evaluated for determination of death by neurologic criteria. The patient's laboratory values reveal sodium 116 mEq/L, potassium 2.8 mEq/L, arterial pH 7.10, and core temperature 36.5°C. Which action must the healthcare team take prior to conducting the clinical brain-death examination?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: sodium 116 mEq/L · arterial pH 7.10

  • A Perform immediate radionuclide cerebral perfusion imaging without biochemical correction.
  • B Proceed with apnea testing while infusing intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
  • C Correct severe electrolyte and acid-base derangements before examination.
  • D Request urgent four-vessel cerebral angiography to bypass confounding laboratories.
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Severe electrolyte, metabolic, and endocrine disturbances must be corrected before initiating formal brain-death testing.

C is correct.Guidelines from the American Academy of Neurology mandate that all potential confounding conditions, including severe electrolyte, acid-base, and endocrine derangements, must be corrected before undertaking a clinical brain-death evaluation. Severe hyponatremia (sodium 116 mEq/L), hypokalemia (potassium 2.8 mEq/L), and severe acidemia (pH 7.10) can profoundly suppress neurologic function, depress central brainstem reflexes, and induce reversible coma that mimics neurologic death. Proceeding with apnea testing while infusing sodium bicarbonate is unsafe and invalid; apnea testing requires baseline biochemical and metabolic stability because severe acidosis and electrolyte imbalances provoke lethal cardiac arrhythmias during hypercapnic challenge. Requesting urgent four-vessel cerebral angiography or performing immediate radionuclide cerebral perfusion imaging without biochemical correction is premature; ancillary studies are indicated when clinical examination cannot be completed or is inconclusive, but they do not eliminate the prerequisite of correcting severe metabolic derangements. The medical team must normalize sodium, potassium, and acid-base status to ensure that observed neurologic unresponsiveness is truly irreversible cessation of brain function.

Question 4

During an emergency exploratory laparotomy under general anesthesia with sevoflurane and succinylcholine, a patient abruptly develops an unexplained rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide, masseter muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and a temperature of 39.8 C. Which pharmacologic intervention is the SPECIFIC antidote indicated to treat this condition?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: unexplained rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide · masseter muscle rigidity, tachycardia, and a temperature

  • A Intravenous dexmedetomidine hydrochloride
  • B Intravenous sodium nitroprusside
  • C Intravenous vecuronium bromide
  • D Intravenous dantrolene sodium
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Intravenous dantrolene is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia triggered by volatile anesthetics or succinylcholine.

D is correct.The clinical scenario describes malignant hyperthermia (MH), a rare, life-threatening pharmacogenetic hypermetabolic crisis triggered by volatile inhalational anesthetics (such as sevoflurane, desflurane, or isoflurane) or the depolarizing neuromuscular blocker succinylcholine. Defective ryanodine receptors (RYR1) in skeletal muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum cause uncontrolled calcium release, leading to sustained muscle contractions, hypermetabolism, hypercarbia, metabolic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, and hyperthermia. Intravenous dantrolene sodium is the specific, life-saving pharmacologic antidote for MH. Dantrolene directly inhibits ryanodine receptor calcium channels, preventing calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the myoplasm and halting the hypermetabolic cascade. Intravenous sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator used for hypertensive crises; it does not address the underlying uncontrolled intracellular calcium release. Intravenous vecuronium bromide is a non-depolarizing paralytic that acts at the motor endplate, which cannot overcome intrinsic calcium cycling within the sarcoplasm. Dexmedetomidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for sedation and analgesia without antidote properties for MH. Triggering agents must be immediately discontinued alongside rapid dantrolene administration and active cooling.

Question 5

An older adult with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents with worsening dyspnea, barrel chest, and profound air trapping on chest radiography. Pulmonary function testing demonstrates a markedly elevated residual volume. Which primary pathophysiologic alteration is responsible for the loss of passive expiratory flow in this patient?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease · elevated residual volume

  • A Acute inflammatory exudate filling alveoli and peripheral terminal airways
  • B Hypertrophy of bronchial submucosal glands with mucus hypersecretion
  • C Extensive smooth muscle hypertrophy surrounding the conducting terminal bronchioles
  • D Irreversible destruction of alveolar septa and elastic recoil
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Pulmonary emphysema is characterized by irreversible destruction of alveolar septa, airspace enlargement, and permanent loss of elastic recoil.

D is correct.The primary pathophysiologic hallmark of pulmonary emphysema is the irreversible destruction of alveolar septa and elastic recoil. Exposure to cigarette smoke attracts inflammatory cells that release proteolytic enzymes, predominantly neutrophil elastase, which overwhelm endogenous antiproteases like alpha-1 antitrypsin. This enzymatic degradation permanently destroys elastin fibers within alveolar septa, leading to enlarged airspaces, loss of pulmonary elastic recoil, and dynamic expiratory airway collapse that traps air and severely elevates residual volume. In contrast, hypertrophy of bronchial submucosal glands with mucus hypersecretion describes chronic bronchitis, which primarily causes luminal narrowing rather than parenchymal destruction. Extensive smooth muscle hypertrophy surrounding the conducting terminal bronchioles represents structural airway remodeling characteristic of chronic, severe asthma. Acute inflammatory exudate filling alveoli and peripheral terminal airways describes acute bacterial or viral pneumonia, which causes consolidation and intrapulmonary shunting rather than permanent loss of elastic recoil. Understanding this destructive pathophysiology is essential for the critical care nurse managing hyperinflation, prolonged expiration, and auto-PEEP during mechanical ventilation.

About the official exam

The CCRN (Adult) – Direct Care Eligibility Pathway is awarded by AACN Certification Corporation (AACN), the certification organization of the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses.

For
Nurses giving direct care to acutely or critically ill adults: ICU, cardiac care, trauma, transport/flight
Delivered by
PSI: 300+ U.S. testing centers, or live remote proctoring
Format
150 questions (125 scored, 25 unscored) · 4 options · 3 hours, up to two 5-minute breaks
Test plan
In use since November 12, 2025: Clinical Judgment 80%, Professional Caring & Ethical Practice 20%
Fees
$260 for AACN members · $375 for nonmembers
Retakes
Up to 4 attempts in a rolling 12-month period, at a discounted retest fee

Source: AACN — CCRN Exam Handbook – Direct Care (July 2026). LexPort is independent exam practice — not affiliated with or endorsed by AACN.

2,093

practice questions

14

timed practice tests

6

test-plan areas

Every

answer explained

What’s inside these CCRN practice questions

  • ✓A full rationale on every question, so you see why the right action fits the critically ill patient in the scenario
  • ✓All 2,093 questions sorted into the six areas of AACN’s Adult CCRN Test Plan (November 2025 version)
  • ✓14 timed practice tests of 150 questions, three hours each: the length and pace of the real exam
  • ✓Scores by test-plan area and a readiness score, so you know which body system to review next
  • ✓Every CCRN test unlocked for $4.99 first month, then $9.99/month, cancel whenever you like, or pay $39.99 once and keep it
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The CCRN domains

CCRN scored domains and weights
Scored domainWeight
Cardiovascular13%
Respiratory12%
Endocrine, Hematology/Immunology, GI, Renal/GU, Integumentary21%
Musculoskeletal, Neurological, Behavioral/Psychosocial18%
Multisystem16%
Professional Caring and Ethical Practice20%

CCRN practice — frequently asked questions

What is the CCRN exam?
CCRN® (Adult) is AACN’s specialty certification in acute/critical care nursing. The Direct Care pathway is for nurses who care directly for acutely or critically ill adult patients, for example in intensive care, cardiac care or trauma units, or in critical care transport and flight. AACN points out that CCRN is not an acronym.
Who gives the CCRN exam?
AACN Certification Corporation, the certification organization of the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses, develops and administers it with PSI Services. You test at one of more than 300 PSI testing centers in the U.S. or by live remote proctoring on your own computer.
How many questions are on the CCRN?
150 multiple-choice items, each with four answer options (A–D). 125 are scored; the other 25 gather statistical data for future exams and are not marked, so treat every question as if it counts.
How long is the CCRN exam?
Three hours. You may take up to two breaks of no more than five minutes each, with no extra time added. Each of our practice tests runs the same way: 150 questions in three hours.
What does the CCRN cover?
Exams taken on and after November 12, 2025 follow AACN’s new Adult CCRN Test Plan. Clinical Judgment is 80%: Cardiovascular 13%, Respiratory 12%, Endocrine, Hematology/Immunology, GI, Renal/GU and Integumentary 21%, Musculoskeletal, Neurological and Behavioral/Psychosocial 18%, and Multisystem 16%. Professional Caring and Ethical Practice makes up the other 20%.
What score do I need to pass the CCRN?
AACN does not publish one. The passing point is set with a modified Angoff process and is a raw number, not a percentage, which can change when exam forms are updated and equated. In our simulator, 70% correct is the readiness line: our own study goal, not AACN’s passing point.
Who can take the CCRN (Adult) exam?
You need a current, unencumbered U.S. RN or APRN license and practice hours in direct care of acutely or critically ill adult patients: either 1,750 hours in the previous two years (875 of them in the most recent year) or 2,000 hours in the previous five years (144 of them in the most recent year).
How much does the CCRN cost, and can I retake it?
The computer-based exam costs $260 for AACN members and $375 for nonmembers; a retest is $185 or $290. You can take the same exam up to four times in a rolling 12-month period.

Authoritative sources

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed October 2026.

Not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by the American Association of Critical-Care Nurses (AACN) or AACN Certification Corporation. CCRN® is a registered service mark; the certification is granted by AACN Certification Corporation. Study aid only; not clinical advice.