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EPPP Part 1 Simulator

EPPP Part 1 (Knowledge) prep: 1,923 practice questions and 11 timed tests

Study for Part 1 (Knowledge) of the Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology with 1,923 practice questions spread across ASPPB’s eight content areas, each followed by a full explanation. Take a 175-question test on a 198-minute clock, or answer the free readiness check on this page first, no signup needed. Part 2 (Skills), a separately taken part that only some boards require, is not covered.

Try EPPP practice questions

5 practice questions, one at a time · every answer explained · no signup.

Question 1 of 5⏱ 0:00

A 74-year-old woman with a six-year history of gradually worsening episodic memory, followed by word-finding difficulty and getting lost in familiar places, dies and undergoes brain autopsy. Which pair of neuropathological findings would most strongly confirm that her dementia was caused by Alzheimer's disease?

Pick an answer

The 5 EPPP practice questions — with answers

Every answer, and why each option is right or wrong. Practise them one at a time in the simulator above.

Question 1

A 74-year-old woman with a six-year history of gradually worsening episodic memory, followed by word-finding difficulty and getting lost in familiar places, dies and undergoes brain autopsy. Which pair of neuropathological findings would most strongly confirm that her dementia was caused by Alzheimer's disease?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: Alzheimer's disease · neuropathological findings

  • A Extracellular amyloid-beta plaques and intracellular tau neurofibrillary tangles
  • B Tau-positive Pick bodies with focal atrophy of the frontal and anterior temporal lobes
  • C Intracellular alpha-synuclein Lewy bodies with loss of pigmented substantia nigra neurons
  • D Multiple lacunar infarcts with diffuse ischemic damage to subcortical white matter
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Alzheimer's disease means amyloid-beta plaques outside neurons plus tau tangles inside them.

A is correct.Alzheimer's disease is defined neuropathologically by two hallmark lesions: extracellular amyloid-beta plaques, formed when amyloid precursor protein is cleaved into fragments that aggregate between neurons, and intracellular neurofibrillary tangles composed of hyperphosphorylated tau that has detached from microtubules. These lesions, together with synaptic and neuronal loss that typically begins in the entorhinal cortex and hippocampus, fit this patient's early episodic memory decline followed by language and visuospatial problems. Lewy bodies made of alpha-synuclein, with depletion of pigmented dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, characterize Parkinson's disease and dementia with Lewy bodies, which typically present with fluctuating attention, recurrent visual hallucinations, and parkinsonism rather than a primarily amnestic course. Multiple lacunar infarcts with ischemic white matter damage point to vascular neurocognitive disorder, which more often shows a stepwise or patchy course with early slowing and executive dysfunction. Tau-positive Pick bodies with focal frontal and anterior temporal atrophy indicate a form of frontotemporal lobar degeneration, which usually begins with personality change, disinhibition, or language loss while memory is relatively spared. Although these conditions can coexist with Alzheimer's pathology, only plaques plus tangles confirm the Alzheimer's diagnosis.

Question 2

Two employees receive identical feedback that their report must be rewritten. One sees it as a threat to her job and feels a pounding heart and dread; the other sees a chance to improve and stays calm. Which theory of emotion best explains this difference?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: identical feedback · sees it as a threat to her job · sees a chance to improve

  • A Schachter-Singer two-factor theory, in which undifferentiated arousal is labeled from situational cues
  • B Lazarus's cognitive-mediational theory, in which appraisal precedes arousal and emotion
  • C James-Lange theory, in which emotion is the perception of preceding bodily changes
  • D Cannon-Bard theory, in which arousal and emotion occur simultaneously but independently
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Lazarus: appraisal comes first, and arousal and emotion follow from it.

B is correct.Lazarus's cognitive-mediational theory holds that cognitive appraisal, a person's evaluation of what an event means for her well-being, comes first and then produces both physiological arousal and the emotional response. Primary appraisal judges whether an event is irrelevant, benign, or threatening, and secondary appraisal weighs the resources available for coping. Because the two employees appraised identical feedback differently, one experienced arousal and dread while the other stayed calm, exactly as this theory predicts. The James-Lange theory proposes that bodily changes occur first as a direct response to a stimulus and that emotion is simply the perception of those changes, so it cannot explain why the same stimulus produced arousal in only one employee. The Cannon-Bard theory states that the thalamus sends simultaneous but independent signals that produce arousal and emotion, leaving no causal role for interpretation. The Schachter-Singer two-factor theory requires arousal to occur first and then be labeled from situational cues; here the cues were identical, and the calm employee showed no arousal to label, so the theory fits poorly. Only a theory in which appraisal precedes arousal and emotion accounts for these divergent reactions.

Question 3

A 47-year-old accountant tells his therapist that his life has felt routine and empty for the past year. He has recently begun mentoring junior staff and volunteering with youth, saying it gives him a renewed sense of purpose. According to Erikson, which psychosocial crisis is he working to resolve?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: According to Erikson · psychosocial crisis

  • A Identity versus role confusion, focused on forming a coherent and stable sense of self
  • B Intimacy versus isolation, focused on forming close and committed adult relationships
  • C Integrity versus despair, focused on accepting the life one has lived as meaningful
  • D Generativity versus stagnation, focused on guiding and nurturing the next generation
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Erikson's midlife crisis is generativity, caring for the next generation, versus stagnation.

D is correct.Erikson placed generativity versus stagnation in middle adulthood, roughly ages 40 to 65. Generativity is concern for establishing and guiding the next generation, expressed through parenting, mentoring, teaching, creative work, and community contribution; failure to achieve it leaves a sense of stagnation, self-absorption, and personal impoverishment. The accountant's feeling that life has become routine and empty reflects stagnation, while his new mentoring of junior staff and volunteering with youth are classic generative activities, and the virtue that emerges from successful resolution is care. Intimacy versus isolation is the crisis of young adulthood, when the task is forming close, committed relationships with others; nothing in this case concerns partnership or loneliness. Integrity versus despair belongs to late adulthood, when older adults review their lives and either accept them as meaningful or feel regret that time is too short to change course; this client is still building contributions rather than reviewing a completed life. Identity versus role confusion is the adolescent crisis of integrating roles, values, and goals into a coherent self, which the established accountant is not struggling with. His age and his turn toward nurturing others both point to generativity.

Question 4

A school district screens all ninth graders for depression. Students whose scores are elevated but who do not meet diagnostic criteria are invited to a cognitive-behavioral skills group. Under Gordon's classification as adapted by the Institute of Medicine, what type of prevention is this skills group?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: scores are elevated · do not meet diagnostic criteria · Gordon's classification

  • A Universal prevention, because the screening was offered to every ninth grader
  • B Tertiary prevention, because it reduces disability from an established depressive disorder
  • C Indicated prevention, because students were individually identified by subclinical signs
  • D Selective prevention, because adolescents as a group face elevated depression risk
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Indicated prevention targets individuals singled out by their own risk markers or subthreshold signs.

C is correct.Gordon's prevention classification, later adapted by the Institute of Medicine for mental disorders, sorts interventions by the population targeted. Indicated prevention is directed at individuals who have been identified, one by one, as being at high risk, typically through detectable markers or minimal subclinical signs that foreshadow a disorder but do not meet diagnostic criteria. Students offered the group because their own screening scores were elevated fit this definition, even though the screening itself reached every student. Universal prevention delivers the intervention to an entire population regardless of risk, such as a depression curriculum taught to all ninth graders; here only the high scorers receive the group. Selective prevention targets subgroups whose risk is above average because of a shared characteristic, such as children of parents with depression, without assessing each person's own signs. Tertiary prevention comes from Caplan's older public health model and aims to reduce disability and relapse among people who already have a diagnosable disorder, whereas these students fall below the diagnostic threshold. The deciding feature is that each participant was selected by an individual risk indicator, which marks the program as indicated prevention.

Question 5

A psychologist practices in a state whose statute on the duty to protect is modeled on the Tarasoff decision. During one week, four clients make the following disclosures in session. Which disclosure would most clearly require the psychologist to take protective action for a third party?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: Tarasoff decision · duty to protect

  • A A client says he will shoot his ex-wife when she visits Saturday
  • B A client admits that he assaulted a stranger in a bar fight two years ago
  • C A client says he wishes his abusive father were dead but denies intent
  • D A client says he often feels enraged enough to hurt somebody someday
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Duty to protect: a serious threat of violence against a reasonably identifiable victim.

A is correct.The Tarasoff decisions held that when a therapist determines, or reasonably should determine, that a client poses a serious danger of violence to another person, the therapist must use reasonable care to protect the intended victim. Most state statutes modeled on Tarasoff are triggered when a client communicates a serious threat of physical violence against a reasonably identifiable victim, and they specify protective options such as warning the victim, notifying police, or initiating hospitalization. A client stating he will shoot his ex-wife when she visits Saturday names a specific victim, a lethal method, and a near-term time frame, so the duty clearly applies. Feeling enraged enough to hurt somebody someday expresses anger but names no identifiable victim and no concrete threat, calling for further risk assessment rather than protective disclosure. Wishing an abusive father were dead while denying intent identifies a person but communicates no threat of violence, and such feelings are common material in therapy. A bar-fight assault two years ago is a past act with no current threat; past violence raises risk but does not by itself create a duty to protect. A serious threat plus an identifiable victim is the core trigger.

About the official exam

The Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP®) Part 1–Knowledge is developed by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB), an alliance of the state, provincial and territorial agencies that license psychologists in the United States and Canada, launched in 1961.

Required for
Licensure in all 66 ASPPB member jurisdictions (U.S. and Canada)
Delivered by
Pearson VUE test centers; U.S. candidates test in the U.S., Canadian candidates in Canada
Part 1 format
225 items (175 scored, 50 unscored pretest) · 3 or 4 options · 4 h 15 min, no scheduled breaks
Passing score
Scaled 200–800 · ASPPB recommends 500 for independent practice
Fees
$600 per sitting + $91.88 Pearson VUE sitting fee, non-refundable
Retakes
With your board’s approval; no more than four sittings in any 12-month period

Source: ASPPB — EPPP Candidate Handbook (September 2026). LexPort is independent exam practice — not affiliated with or endorsed by ASPPB.

1,923

practice questions

11

timed practice tests

8

ASPPB Part 1 domains

Every

answer explained

What’s inside these EPPP practice questions

  • ✓Each explanation works through why the keyed answer holds and where the other choices go wrong, so the concept sticks for the next item
  • ✓None of the 1,923 is an ASPPB exam item; each one is filed under one of the eight Part 1 domains ASPPB uses for exams given in 2026 and 2027
  • ✓Ten tests of 175 questions and one of 173, timed at 198 minutes: the scored-item count at the real 225-item, 4 h 15 min pace. Ours leave out the 50 unscored items and always offer four choices, where real items have three or four
  • ✓A score for each of the eight domains, plus an overall percentage measured against a 70% readiness line we set ourselves; ASPPB reports a scaled 200–800 score and recommends 500 to pass
  • ✓$4.99 first month, then $9.99/month opens all 11 Part 1 tests until you cancel, or $39.99 buys them outright with nothing to renew
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The EPPP domains

EPPP scored domains and weights
Scored domainWeight
Biological Bases of Behavior10%
Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior13%
Social and Cultural Bases of Behavior11%
Growth and Lifespan Development12%
Assessment and Diagnosis16%
Treatment, Intervention, Prevention, and Supervision15%
Research Methods and Statistics7%
Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues16%

EPPP practice — frequently asked questions

What is the EPPP Part 1?
Part 1 (Knowledge) is the general-knowledge part of the Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP), which the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB) develops and owns. All 66 ASPPB member jurisdictions in the U.S. and Canada require a passing score on it before licensure. To sit it, you first apply for licensure with the board where you want to practice, and it approves you to test once you meet its requirements.
How many questions are on the EPPP Part 1?
There are 225 multiple-choice items, each with three or four answer choices and a single correct one. ASPPB scores 175 of them; the remaining 50 are pretest items that do not count. Ten of our practice tests hold 175 questions and the eleventh holds 173; every question has four choices, and no test includes pretest items.
How long is the EPPP Part 1?
You get 4 hours and 15 minutes for the items, plus 5 minutes each for the tutorial, the candidate acknowledgement and a closing survey. No breaks are scheduled; you can step away whenever you choose, but the exam clock does not stop. Our practice tests run at the same pace: 175 questions in 198 minutes.
What is on the EPPP Part 1?
Eight domains, based on ASPPB’s 2017 job task analysis and used for exams given in 2026 and 2027: Biological Bases of Behavior 10%, Cognitive-Affective Bases of Behavior 13%, Social and Cultural Bases of Behavior 11%, Growth and Lifespan Development 12%, Assessment and Diagnosis 16%, Treatment, Intervention, Prevention, and Supervision 15%, Research Methods and Statistics 7%, and Ethical, Legal, and Professional Issues 16%.
What is a passing score on the EPPP?
ASPPB converts the number you answer correctly to a scaled score from 200 to 800 and recommends 500 for independent practice and 450 for supervised practice. Each board sets its own standard, though ASPPB says all of them currently accept 500 for independent practice on Part 1. The 70% readiness line in our simulator is our own target, not an ASPPB figure.
How much does the EPPP Part 1 cost?
The exam fee is $600 per sitting, plus a $91.88 Pearson VUE test sitting fee, and neither is refundable. You pay both through Clarus, ASPPB’s candidate registration portal since September 29, 2026. Those amounts come from the September 2026 handbook; the $650 fee ASPPB has set from April 1, 2028 applies to the integrated EPPP, not Part 1.
Do I need to take EPPP Part 2?
Only if the jurisdiction where you seek licensure requires it, so ask that board. Part 2 (Skills) needs its own application, approval, $450 exam fee and $91.88 sitting fee, and you can take it only after passing Part 1. This course covers Part 1 alone; Part 2 also uses multiple-response, scenario, video, point-and-click and drag-and-drop items that our tests do not reproduce.
Is the EPPP changing in 2027?
Yes. ASPPB plans one integrated EPPP with a new content outline, taking effect in the fourth quarter of 2027 (fall 2027); after that, Part 1 is closed to first-time candidates, people who failed it before then may retake it through March 31, 2028, and from April 1, 2028 the integrated exam is the only EPPP. This course follows the current Part 1 outline, which ASPPB uses for exams given in 2026 and 2027.

Authoritative sources

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed November 2026.

Not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB). EPPP® is a mark of ASPPB. Study aid only; not legal or clinical advice.