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OCN Simulator

OCN exam prep — 2,755 oncology nursing questions with rationales

This course prepares you for the Oncology Certified Nurse (OCN®) exam with 2,755 practice questions, each tagged to a subject area of ONCC’s 2026 test content outline and each followed by a written rationale. Work through 19 timed tests of 145 questions, or begin with the free readiness check below, no signup needed.

Try OCN practice questions

5 practice questions, one at a time · every answer explained · no signup.

Question 1 of 5⏱ 0:00

An opioid-tolerant patient with stable cancer pain has a first transdermal fentanyl patch applied. When should therapeutic serum concentrations be expected?

Pick an answer

The 5 OCN practice questions — with answers

Every answer, and why each option is right or wrong. Practise them one at a time in the simulator above.

Question 1

An opioid-tolerant patient with stable cancer pain has a first transdermal fentanyl patch applied. When should therapeutic serum concentrations be expected?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: transdermal fentanyl patch · therapeutic serum concentrations

  • A In 2 to 4 hours
  • B In 7 to 10 days
  • C In 12 to 24 hours
  • D In 30 to 60 minutes
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

A new fentanyl patch takes 12 to 24 hours to work, so bridge with the previous opioid.

C is correct.Transdermal fentanyl first forms a drug depot in the skin before it is absorbed, so serum concentrations rise slowly and typically reach therapeutic levels 12 to 24 hours after the first patch is applied, then stay fairly constant through the 72-hour wear period. Because of this delay, the previous opioid must be bridged: a patient taking a 12-hour extended-release opioid takes the last dose when the patch goes on, and a patient using immediate-release doses continues them around the clock for about 12 hours, with breakthrough doses available throughout. In 30 to 60 minutes is wrong because that timing reflects the rapid onset of intravenous or transmucosal fentanyl; the patch is unsuitable for acute or rapidly changing pain. In 2 to 4 hours is wrong because absorption through the skin has barely begun at that point. In 7 to 10 days is wrong because adequate levels are reached within the first day, although the dose should not be increased until at least 3 days after the first application. Teaching includes avoiding heating pads, hot tubs, and fever-related heat over the patch, which speed absorption and raise overdose risk, and knowing that drug effects persist for many hours after removal.

Question 2

A nurse is giving a vesicant by slow IV push through a peripheral catheter. How often should blood return be verified during the push?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: vesicant by slow IV push · blood return

  • A Every 2 to 5 mL
  • B Only before the push
  • C Every 10 to 15 mL
  • D Every 20 to 25 mL
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Peripheral vesicant push: check blood return before starting and every 2 to 5 mL.

A is correct.Current ONS chemotherapy administration standards direct the nurse to confirm a brisk blood return before giving a vesicant and then every 2 to 5 mL during a peripheral IV push, while also watching the site for swelling, redness, or pain. Frequent checks matter because a peripheral vein can be fragile, and a vesicant such as doxorubicin can cause blistering, tissue necrosis, and loss of function if even a small volume leaks. Checking every 10 to 15 mL is wrong because that interval would let too much drug escape before the problem is detected. Checking every 20 to 25 mL is even less safe and matches no accepted standard. Checking only before the push is wrong because a blood return confirmed at the start does not guarantee the catheter stays in the vein; its position can change as the patient moves or the vein wall weakens. The nurse should give the drug through the side port of a freely flowing compatible solution, use a newly placed catheter in the forearm rather than the hand, wrist, or antecubital area, stop immediately if blood return is lost or the patient reports burning, and avoid continuous vesicant infusions through peripheral lines.

Question 3

An adult with Burkitt lymphoma begins induction chemotherapy. Which serum value meets an absolute Cairo-Bishop laboratory criterion for tumor lysis syndrome?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: Cairo-Bishop laboratory criterion · tumor lysis syndrome

  • A Calcium 7.8 mg/dL
  • B Potassium 5.4 mEq/L
  • C Phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
  • D Uric acid 8.2 mg/dL
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Cairo-Bishop laboratory TLS: uric acid 8 or higher, potassium 6 or higher, phosphorus 4.5 or higher, calcium 7 or lower.

D is correct.Under the Cairo-Bishop definition, laboratory tumor lysis syndrome requires two or more abnormal values occurring from 3 days before to 7 days after starting therapy, with absolute thresholds of uric acid 8 mg/dL or greater, potassium 6 mEq/L or greater, phosphorus 4.5 mg/dL or greater in adults, and calcium 7 mg/dL or less; the original definition also counts a 25 percent change from baseline. A uric acid of 8.2 mg/dL meets the hyperuricemia criterion, reflecting rapid breakdown of nucleic acids from lysed tumor cells, and it can cause uric acid crystal deposition in the renal tubules and acute kidney injury. Potassium 5.4 mEq/L is wrong because it is elevated but remains below the 6 mEq/L threshold, although the nurse should still monitor cardiac rhythm and trends. Phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL is wrong because it falls short of the adult threshold of 4.5 mg/dL. Calcium 7.8 mg/dL is wrong because the hypocalcemia criterion requires 7 mg/dL or less. For high-risk patients such as those with Burkitt lymphoma, the nurse ensures aggressive IV hydration, accurate intake and output, frequent electrolyte checks, and rasburicase or allopurinol as ordered, and promptly reports rising creatinine, arrhythmias, or muscle cramping.

Question 4

A research nurse is screening patients for a phase II oncology trial. Which candidate belongs to a population entitled to additional federal research protections?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: additional federal research protections · phase II oncology trial

  • A A 58-year-old rural farmer
  • B A 16-year-old student
  • C A 72-year-old retiree
  • D A 45-year-old military veteran
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

Prisoners, pregnant individuals, and children are the groups with added federal research protections.

B is correct.The federal Common Rule (45 CFR 46) adds specific subparts of protection for three groups: pregnant women, fetuses, and neonates in Subpart B; prisoners in Subpart C; and children in Subpart D. A 16-year-old student has not reached the legal age of consent, so enrollment requires permission from a parent or guardian plus the adolescent's own assent, and the institutional review board must apply the added risk and benefit limits for pediatric research. A 72-year-old retiree is not automatically vulnerable; older age alone does not trigger extra regulatory protections unless decision-making capacity is impaired, and excluding older adults solely by age is discouraged because they carry much of the cancer burden. A 45-year-old military veteran is a competent adult who gives his own informed consent, and veteran status is not one of the federally designated vulnerable groups. A 58-year-old rural farmer may face access barriers such as travel distance, which the team should address to promote equitable enrollment, but rural residence is not a protected research category. The nurse supports ethical research by recognizing these categories, confirming proper consent and assent, and reporting any concern about coercion or undue influence to the IRB.

Question 5

An alert patient with decision-making capacity refuses a recommended blood transfusion, but his designated healthcare proxy insists on it. Whose decision should the nurse follow?

💡 Hint

Look closely at: capacity refuses a recommended blood transfusion · designated healthcare proxy

  • A The patient's decision
  • B The oncologist's decision
  • C The proxy's decision
  • D The ethics committee's decision
▸Show the answer — and why each of the other three is wrong

🔑 Key takeaway

A healthcare proxy speaks only when the patient can no longer speak for themselves.

A is correct.A healthcare proxy, or durable power of attorney for health care, gives the named agent authority to make medical decisions only after the patient has been formally determined, usually by the attending physician, to lack decision-making capacity. While the patient retains capacity, the patient's decision governs, even when the proxy or care team disagrees, because informed refusal is protected by the ethical principle of autonomy and by law. The proxy's decision is wrong because the document has not been activated; an alert patient who understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives remains the decision-maker. The oncologist's decision is wrong because a physician may recommend and explain treatment but cannot override an informed refusal by a capable adult. The ethics committee's decision is wrong because ethics consultation can help resolve conflict and support communication, but it does not transfer decision-making authority away from a capable patient. The nurse should confirm that capacity has been assessed and documented, make sure the patient understands the consequences of refusing, document the refusal, advocate for the patient's stated wishes, and support a family meeting so the proxy understands the patient's values before any future decisions are needed.

About the official exam

The Oncology Certified Nurse (OCN®) is awarded by Oncology Nursing Certification Corporation (ONCC), a non-profit founded in 1984 and an affiliated organization of the Oncology Nursing Society.

For
Registered nurses who practice in adult oncology
Delivered by
Computer-based testing at PSI test centers, year-round in the US, its territories, and Canada
Format
165 multiple-choice questions (145 scored, 20 pretest) · four options, one correct · 3-hour session
Passing score
Scaled score of 55 on a 25–75 scale
Fees
2026: $300 for ONS/APHON members · $420 for nonmembers · $75 extra for international testing
Retakes
Retest after your 90-day ATT expires; a 1-year wait after 3 failures within 3 years

Source: ONCC — 2026 Test Registration Manual (valid January 1, 2026). LexPort is independent exam practice — not affiliated with or endorsed by ONCC.

2,755

practice questions

19

timed practice tests

6

outline subject areas

Every

answer explained

What’s inside these OCN practice questions

  • ✓A written rationale after each question shows why the keyed choice is the right oncology nursing call and where the other choices fall short
  • ✓Each of the 2,755 questions is tagged to one of the six subject areas in ONCC’s 2026 OCN Test Content Outline
  • ✓19 practice tests, each 145 questions in 158 minutes: the count ONCC scores, at the per-question pace of its 165-question, three-hour session (the 20 unscored pretest items are not included)
  • ✓A score for every subject area, plus an overall percent correct set against a readiness line we chose at 70%; ONCC’s own standard is a scaled score of 55 on a 25–75 scale
  • ✓The full set of 19 OCN practice tests costs $4.99 first month, then $9.99/month, and you may cancel at any point; a single $39.99 payment buys lifetime access instead
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The OCN domains

OCN scored domains and weights
Scored domainWeight
Care Continuum14%
Oncology Nursing Practice15%
Treatment Modalities20%
Symptom Management and Supportive Care25%
Oncologic Emergencies16%
Psychosocial Dimensions of Care10%

OCN practice — frequently asked questions

What is the OCN certification?
The Oncology Certified Nurse (OCN®) is ONCC’s certification for registered nurses who practice in adult oncology, whether in clinical practice, nursing administration, education, research, or consultation. The Oncology Nursing Certification Corporation was founded in 1984 as a non-profit, gave the first OCN® exam in 1986, and holds NCCA accreditation for the program. Once you pass, the certification is valid for four years.
Who is eligible to take the OCN exam?
You need a current, active, unencumbered RN license in the US, its territories, or Canada (a license from elsewhere must first be evaluated for US equivalency), and at least two years (24 months) of RN experience within the four years before you apply. ONCC also asks for at least 2,000 hours of adult oncology nursing practice in those four years, and at least 10 contact hours of oncology nursing continuing education (or an academic oncology nursing elective) within the three years before you apply.
How many questions are on the OCN exam?
165 multiple-choice questions, each with four answer options and only one correct answer. ONCC scores 145 of them; the other 20 are pretest questions, and you cannot tell which is which. Each of our practice tests gives you 145 single-best-answer questions, and every one of them counts toward your result.
How long is the OCN exam?
The test session lasts three hours, and that time includes 15 minutes for a computer-based testing tutorial and a post-test survey. There are no scheduled breaks, and the timer keeps running if you step away. Our tests allow 158 minutes for 145 questions, the same minutes per question as 165 items in three hours; we take nothing off for the tutorial and survey, so the real clock can run a little tighter.
What does the OCN exam cover?
ONCC’s 2026 OCN® Test Content Outline, based on a role delineation study of basic adult oncology nursing practice completed in 2024, has six subject areas: Care Continuum 14%, Oncology Nursing Practice 15%, Treatment Modalities 20%, Symptom Management and Supportive Care 25%, Oncologic Emergencies 16%, and Psychosocial Dimensions of Care 10%. Every form of the test covers each area at its percentage, though not every sub-area shows up on every form. Drugs appear by generic name only. Our practice tests do not copy those percentages: each keeps to our question bank’s own mix (roughly 19% Care Continuum, 17% Treatment Modalities, 22% Symptom Management), and your results are still reported under ONCC’s six areas.
What score do you need to pass the OCN exam?
A scaled score of 55, on an ONCC scale that runs from 25 to 75. A scaled score is not a percentage, and the raw number of correct answers needed can differ between test forms. Our simulator shows percent correct and does not calculate a scaled score; its 70% readiness line is a study target we chose, not ONCC’s passing standard.
Where do you take the OCN exam?
On a computer at a PSI test center. Testing runs year-round in the US, its territories, and Canada; elsewhere ONCC offers it once a year for a limited time: June 1–30 in 2026, with 2027 applications expected to open January 1, 2027. Once you are confirmed eligible, PSI emails an Authorization to Test that stays valid for 90 days, and you must sit the test before it expires.
How much does the OCN exam cost, and can I retake it?
ONCC’s 2026 manual lists a test fee of $300 for ONS/APHON members and $420 for nonmembers, plus $75 for international testing. After a failed attempt you may apply to retest once your current ATT expires, with no more than one try in a 90-day eligibility period, and three failures within three years mean a one-year wait. ONCC’s optional DoubleTake, an extra $100 bought with your initial application, gives you a retake without paying the full test fee again if you apply for it within 180 days of the first attempt; candidates testing outside the US, its territories, or Canada cannot buy it.

Authoritative sources

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed November 2026.

Not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by the Oncology Nursing Certification Corporation (ONCC). ONCC® and OCN® are registered marks of the Oncology Nursing Certification Corporation. Study aid only; not clinical advice.