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CNOR: Electrosurgery & Fire Safety

Electrosurgery and lasers are essential but carry real risks in the OR. These CNOR questions cover ESU use, the surgical fire triangle, laser safety, and smoke evacuation — each with a full rationale.

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  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every CNOR question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed August 2026.

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2,200+ practice questions with rationales on iOS

Test yourself: CNOR: Electrosurgery & Fire Safety

Three CNOR practice questions on cnor: electrosurgery & fire safety — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 2,200+, timed and scored.

Question 1

80 of 200. During a routine procedure, the circulating nurse observes smoke pouring from the electrical outlet behind the anesthesia machine while the scrubbed team is at the field. Applying the RACE protocol, what is the nurse's most appropriate initial action?

Why C is the answer

The RACE protocol dictates the sequence of actions during a fire emergency: Rescue, Alarm, Confine, and Extinguish/Evacuate. The absolute first priority in any fire situation is life safety. Option C is correct because removing the patient and personnel from the immediate vicinity of the sparking outlet fulfills the initial rescue action. Option A represents the "Alarm" phase, which is critical but must occur immediately after ensuring anyone in direct, immediate danger is moved away from the hazard. Option B represents the "Evacuate" phase, which is a later step coordinated after the alarm is sounded and containment is attempted. Option D is incorrect and potentially dangerous; attempting to unplug equipment from an actively smoking or sparking outlet risks severe electrical shock or burns to the nurse.

🔑 Key takeaway

The first step in the RACE protocol is always to rescue individuals in immediate danger.

Question 2

83 of 200. A 68-year-old patient with a right total hip arthroplasty is scheduled for an open cholecystectomy. The surgeon requests monopolar electrosurgery. Where should the perioperative nurse place the dispersive electrode?

Why B is the answer

When using monopolar electrosurgery, the electrical current seeks the path of least resistance back to the dispersive electrode. Placing the pad on the left anterior thigh ensures the current travels from the abdominal surgical site directly to the left leg, safely avoiding the right hip implant and preventing an alternate pathway burn. Option A and Option C are incorrect because placing the pad on the right leg would force the electrical current to travel near or directly through the metal implant, risking severe internal thermal injury. Option D is incorrect because the left posterior shoulder is too far from the surgical site; maximizing distance unnecessarily can require higher power settings, which increases the overall risk of capacitive coupling and patient burns.

🔑 Key takeaway

Always place the dispersive electrode so the current pathway avoids existing metal orthopedic implants.

Question 3

105 of 200. A patient with an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) is scheduled for an open cholecystectomy using monopolar electrosurgery. The perioperative nurse plans to place a clinical magnet over the device. What is the expected physiological effect of this intervention?

Why B is the answer

Placing a magnet over an ICD suspends tachyarrhythmia detection and therapy to prevent inappropriate shocks caused by electromagnetic interference from the monopolar electrosurgery. Option B is correct because the magnet disables the defibrillation function without altering the baseline bradycardia pacing. Option A describes the magnet response for a standard pacemaker, not an ICD. Option C is incorrect because pacing functions are not deactivated by a magnet. Option D is incorrect because the magnet does not reprogram the device to a high-rate pacing mode; it only temporarily suspends the shock function while the magnet is in place. Continuous monitoring is essential during this time.

🔑 Key takeaway

Magnet application on an ICD suspends defibrillation therapy but does not alter baseline bradycardia pacing functions.

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Question 1

6 of 15. A perioperative nurse dispenses a substantially smaller volume of alcohol-based surgical hand rub than the manufacturer recommends, noting that the product dries completely within ten seconds of application. Which outcome is most likely to result from this practice?

  • A) The hands will experience excessive epidermal skin irritation.
  • B) The microbial count on the hands will rebound.
  • C) The sterile gloves will adhere to the epidermis.
  • D) The hands will lack sufficient antimicrobial contact time.

💡 Key Takeaway

Using the manufacturer-recommended volume of hand rub ensures adequate wet contact time for microbial reduction.

Show rationale

The efficacy of alcohol-based surgical hand rubs depends on applying the correct volume to ensure the hands remain wet for the manufacturer-recommended duration. Using a substantially smaller volume causes the product to dry too quickly, meaning the hands will lack sufficient antimicrobial contact time to achieve the necessary log reduction in resident and transient flora. Excessive skin irritation (Option A) is more commonly associated with applying too much product or failing to let it dry completely, rather than using too little. A rebound in microbial count (Option B) occurs over several hours during the procedure, but the immediate failure here is the initial reduction. Glove adherence (Option C) happens when hands are still wet, whereas this scenario explicitly states the product dried completely within ten seconds.

Question 2

26 of 200. A patient in a high lithotomy position develops ventricular fibrillation on the cardiac monitor. The surgical team calls for an immediate halt to the procedure to begin resuscitation. How should the perioperative nurse manage the patient's positioning?

  • A) Lower one leg at a time to the flat table.
  • B) Lower both legs simultaneously to the flat table.
  • C) Maintain leg elevation to promote central venous return.
  • D) Remove the stirrups while keeping both legs elevated.

💡 Key Takeaway

During cardiac arrest in lithotomy, both legs must be lowered simultaneously to allow effective CPR and prevent injury.

Show rationale

To perform effective CPR, the patient must be supine. When removing a patient from lithotomy, it is critical to lower both legs simultaneously to prevent hip dislocation and minimize sudden hemodynamic instability. Option B is the safest and most effective action. Option A is incorrect because lowering one leg at a time creates uneven pelvic stress, risking musculoskeletal injury. Option C is a common misconception; while elevating legs can transiently increase venous return, leaving them in high stirrups severely impedes the physical mechanics of chest compressions and restricts diaphragmatic movement. Option D is incorrect because keeping the legs elevated without stirrup support risks dropping the extremities and still fails to provide the flat, supine posture required for high-quality resuscitation.

Question 3

47 of 200. A patient having a laparoscopic cholecystectomy wears a sacred red string on the left wrist. Electrosurgery will be used.

  • A) Tape the string securely and cover it with clear dressing.
  • B) Remove the string entirely and hand it to the family.
  • C) Place the string inside a sterile bag on the backtable.
  • D) Cut the string carefully and secure it in the chart.

💡 Key Takeaway

Spiritual items should remain on the patient unless they directly interfere with safety or the surgical site.

Show rationale

Accommodating spiritual items is essential in perioperative care. A non-metallic string on the wrist does not interfere with the surgical site for a cholecystectomy or pose a burn risk with electrosurgery, unlike metal jewelry. Taping it securely prevents snagging and contamination. Removing or cutting it violates the patient's spiritual practices, while placing it on the sterile backtable compromises the sterile field.

Question 4

56 of 200. While the surgeon is lasering the vocal cords, the nurse observes a sudden flash of light and smoke erupting from the mouth. Which action should the team take?

  • A) Immediately pour sterile saline directly into the patient airway.
  • B) Immediately increase the oxygen flow to flush the smoke.
  • C) Immediately administer a rapid bolus of intravenous corticosteroid medication.
  • D) Immediately disconnect the breathing circuit and remove the tube.

💡 Key Takeaway

The immediate response to an airway fire is to disconnect the circuit and extubate the patient.

Show rationale

A sudden flash of light and smoke indicate an active airway fire. The absolute priority is to halt the fire triad by removing the fuel and oxidizer. The team must disconnect the circuit and remove the tube immediately, followed by stopping the flow of airway gases. Option A is incorrect as a primary step; while saline may be poured into the airway to extinguish residual smoldering after extubation, leaving the burning tube in place causes severe thermal injury. Option B is dangerous because increasing oxygen feeds the fire. Option C is a potential post-event medical management step to reduce edema, but it does nothing to extinguish the active fire.

Question 5

76 of 200. A fire originating in the ceiling above the surgical field cannot be contained, and an evacuation of the suite is ordered. Which action represents the correct protocol for managing the medical gas supply?

  • A) The scrub nurse shuts off valves after securing the sterile field.
  • B) The circulating nurse shuts off valves after confirming with anesthesia.
  • C) The anesthesia provider shuts off valves before disconnecting the patient.
  • D) The charge nurse shuts off valves before sounding the fire alarm.

💡 Key Takeaway

Medical gas shut-off requires explicit coordination with anesthesia to ensure the patient is manually ventilated.

Show rationale

During an operating room fire, shutting off medical gases is critical to prevent fueling the flames. However, this action must be carefully coordinated because it immediately removes life-sustaining oxygen from the patient. Option B is correct because the circulating nurse (or charge nurse) typically shuts off the zone valves, but only after coordinating with anesthesia to ensure the patient is transitioned to a self-inflating manual resuscitation bag on room air. Option A is incorrect because the scrub nurse must remain focused on the sterile field and patient. Option C is incorrect because the anesthesia provider must focus entirely on managing the patient's airway and ventilation during the transition. Option D is incorrect because the fire alarm must be sounded immediately, long before shutting off medical gases is considered or executed.

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CNOR · Exam Simulator

6 of 15. A perioperative nurse dispenses a substantially smaller volume of alcohol-based surgical hand rub tha…

A) The hands will experience excessive epid
B) The microbial count on the hands will re
C) The sterile gloves will adhere to the ep
D) The hands will lack sufficient antimicro
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