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CNOR: Anesthesia Care

Supporting safe anesthesia is central to perioperative nursing. These CNOR questions cover types of anesthesia, monitoring, malignant hyperthermia recognition, and the circulating nurse’s role — each with a full rationale.

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  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every CNOR question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed August 2026.

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2,200+ practice questions with rationales on iOS

Test yourself: CNOR: Anesthesia Care

Three CNOR practice questions on cnor: anesthesia care — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 2,200+, timed and scored.

Question 1

30 of 200. A patient with a family history of malignant hyperthermia undergoes an orthopedic procedure using total intravenous anesthesia without depolarizing muscle relaxants. During the PACU handoff, what critical risk mitigation strategy must the perioperative nurse communicate?

Why C is the answer

Even when a patient with malignant hyperthermia susceptibility receives a trigger-free anesthetic, there remains a risk for a delayed hypermetabolic crisis in the postoperative period. The PACU nurse must be informed to continue vigilant monitoring of end-tidal carbon dioxide, heart rate, and temperature. Prophylactic dantrolene (Option A) is not routinely administered without active signs of a crisis. Isolation precautions (Option B) are irrelevant to malignant hyperthermia. Active cooling measures (Option D) are only indicated if the patient is actively experiencing a hyperthermic crisis, not as a preventative measure for a stable patient who received a safe anesthetic technique.

🔑 Key takeaway

MH-susceptible patients require PACU handoff communication regarding delayed crisis monitoring despite trigger-free anesthesia.

Question 2

31 of 200. A patient undergoing trachea surgery experiences sudden cardiac arrest while sterile drapes cover the patient's face. The anesthesia provider cannot access the airway. What is the appropriate intervention?

Why B is the answer

During a cardiac arrest, the principle of "life over limb" dictates that life-saving measures supersede the maintenance of the sterile field. If drapes obstruct the anesthesia provider's access to the airway, you must drop the sterile drapes immediately to allow direct visualization and secure intubation. Option A is incorrect because blind intubation under drapes is unsafe, highly prone to failure, and risks esophageal intubation or airway trauma. Option C is incorrect because while compressions are vital, establishing a secure airway is a fundamental component of advanced life support that cannot be ignored. Option D is incorrect because cutting a small hole is impractical, wastes time, and does not provide the necessary exposure for the anesthesia provider to properly visualize the vocal cords and manage the airway.

🔑 Key takeaway

Life-saving interventions, such as securing an airway, take precedence over maintaining the sterile field.

Question 3

33 of 200. During an open exploratory laparotomy, the circulating nurse observes rapidly filling suction canisters while the anesthesia provider is focused on the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take to ensure patient safety?

Why A is the answer

The nurse must establish a shared mental model by communicating critical changes loudly enough for both the surgeon and anesthesia provider to hear. Option A correctly prioritizes immediate, team-wide communication of a potential hemorrhage. Option B focuses on documentation, which delays necessary clinical interventions. Option C excludes the anesthesia provider, who urgently needs this information to manage volume resuscitation. Option D is a helpful task but ignores the primary communication failure occurring in the room.

🔑 Key takeaway

Shared mental models require verbalizing critical visual findings to the entire operative team simultaneously.

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Question 1

1 of 15. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the anesthesia provider notes sudden severe bradycardia immediately following abdominal insufflation to 15 mmHg. The patient's blood pressure drops significantly. Which intervention is the most appropriate response?

  • A) Administer intravenous atropine sulfate to the patient.
  • B) Request the surgeon to release the pneumoperitoneum.
  • C) Place the patient in a deep Trendelenburg.
  • D) Initiate immediate external chest compressions for support.

💡 Key Takeaway

Sudden bradycardia during abdominal insufflation is typically a vagal response resolved by releasing the pneumoperitoneum.

Show rationale

During laparoscopic procedures, rapid abdominal insufflation can stretch the peritoneum and trigger a profound vagal response, leading to sudden bradycardia and hypotension. The most direct and effective initial intervention is to ask the surgeon to release the pneumoperitoneum, which removes the mechanical stimulus causing the reflex. Administering atropine is an anesthesia responsibility and is typically reserved for cases where releasing the gas does not resolve the bradycardia. Placing the patient in deep Trendelenburg would actually worsen diaphragmatic pressure and respiratory compliance. Chest compressions are entirely premature unless the patient progresses to true cardiac arrest.

Question 2

11 of 15. Shortly after succinylcholine administration during induction, the anesthesia provider notes tachycardia and muscle rigidity. The perioperative nurse should recognize that the earliest physiological indicator of this specific hypermetabolic crisis is typically which of the following?

  • A) Rapidly increasing core body temperature measurement trends
  • B) Unexplained abrupt rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide
  • C) Sudden development of generalized skeletal muscle rigidity
  • D) Profound sudden drop in arterial oxygen saturation

💡 Key Takeaway

An abrupt, unexplained rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide is the most consistent early sign of malignant hyperthermia.

Show rationale

The pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia involves a rapid, hypermetabolic state within skeletal muscle cells. As these cells consume massive amounts of oxygen and produce excessive carbon dioxide, the earliest and most consistent clinical sign is an unexplained, abrupt rise in end-tidal carbon dioxide. While a rapidly increasing core body temperature is a hallmark of the crisis, it is actually a late sign of the ongoing hypermetabolism and muscle breakdown. Generalized skeletal muscle rigidity, particularly masseter muscle spasm, can occur early but is not as universally present or easily continuously monitored as capnography. A profound drop in arterial oxygen saturation may eventually occur as oxygen demand outpaces supply, but it is not the initial indicator. Recognizing hypercarbia allows the team to intervene promptly.

Question 3

2 of 200. An adult patient under general anesthesia is scheduled for the treatment of a facial port-wine stain using a pulsed-dye laser. How should the perioperative nurse protect the patient's eyes during this procedure?

  • A) Apply wet eye pads and secure them with laser-safe metallic shields.
  • B) Tape the patient's eyelids closed using standard clear adhesive medical tape.
  • C) Place standard protective safety goggles directly over the patient's open eyes.
  • D) Cover the patient's entire face with a dry sterile surgical towel.

💡 Key Takeaway

Patient eye protection during facial laser surgery requires non-flammable wet pads and wavelength-specific metallic shields.

Show rationale

Option A is the correct approach because protecting the patient's eyes during facial laser surgery requires non-flammable materials; wet eye pads combined with metallic shields effectively block the laser energy and prevent thermal injury. Option B is incorrect because standard clear adhesive tape can easily melt or allow the laser beam to penetrate, offering no real protection. Option C is wrong because standard goggles can shift under surgical drapes, and the patient's eyes must be completely closed to prevent corneal abrasions or retinal damage. Option D is incorrect because placing a dry surgical towel over the face creates a significant fire hazard if the laser beam inadvertently strikes the drape. Wetting the surrounding area and using specific shields is always the safest method.

Question 4

11 of 200. As the surgical procedure concludes, the circulating nurse calls the waiting room, but the family is not in the surgical waiting area. The patient is ready for immediate transport to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU).

  • A) Document the absence and transfer notification responsibility to the PACU nurse.
  • B) Delay the patient transport until the family returns to the area.
  • C) Chart that the family abandoned the waiting room before surgery completion.
  • D) Record leaving a detailed clinical voicemail on the family member's phone.

💡 Key Takeaway

When family is unavailable, document the absence and ensure continuity of communication during the PACU handoff.

Show rationale

When a family cannot be reached, the circulator must document the absence of the family and ensure continuity of care by transferring the notification responsibility during the structured PACU handoff. Option B inappropriately delays essential patient care and transport for an administrative task. Option C uses subjective, judgmental terminology ("abandoned") which does not belong in a professional medical record. Option D violates HIPAA guidelines, as detailed clinical information should never be left on an unsecured voicemail.

Question 5

23 of 200. A 30-year-old patient is scheduled for a postpartum tubal ligation under spinal anesthesia. The patient reports a new-onset severe headache accompanied by blurred vision and nausea since yesterday.

  • A) Administer the ordered preoperative intravenous antiemetic for the nausea.
  • B) Suspend preoperative sedation and notify the anesthesia provider promptly.
  • C) Dim the room lights and encourage deep breathing exercises.
  • D) Prepare the patient for an immediate epidural blood patch.

💡 Key Takeaway

Symptoms suggesting increased intracranial pressure require immediate evaluation before proceeding with a dural puncture.

Show rationale

New-onset severe headache accompanied by blurred vision and nausea can indicate increased intracranial pressure or worsening pre-eclampsia in a postpartum patient. Performing a dural puncture in the presence of elevated intracranial pressure can lead to life-threatening brainstem herniation. The nurse must withhold sedation and notify the anesthesia provider immediately to reassess the patient. Option B is the safest and most appropriate action. Option A is incorrect because administering an antiemetic only masks a symptom without addressing the critical underlying risk. Option C is wrong because while dimming lights might provide comfort, it ignores the need for urgent medical evaluation. Option D is incorrect because an epidural blood patch is a treatment for a post-dural puncture headache, not a preoperative intervention for a new, undiagnosed headache.

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2,200+ practice questions with rationales on iOS

CNOR · Exam Simulator

1 of 15. During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the anesthesia provider notes sudden severe bradycardia immedi…

A) Administer intravenous atropine sulfate
B) Request the surgeon to release the pneum
C) Place the patient in a deep Trendelenbur
D) Initiate immediate external chest compre
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