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CNOR: Postoperative Care

Safe transitions out of the OR protect the patient during a vulnerable period. These CNOR questions cover PACU handoff, monitoring for complications, and recovery — each with a full rationale.

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  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every CNOR question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed August 2026.

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2,200+ practice questions with rationales on iOS

Test yourself: CNOR: Postoperative Care

Three CNOR practice questions on cnor: postoperative care — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 2,200+, timed and scored.

Question 1

60 of 200. During handoff for a patient with obstructive sleep apnea who received a long-acting nondepolarizing muscle relaxant, which action by the PACU RN is most appropriate?

Why B is the answer

For a patient with obstructive sleep apnea who received a long-acting nondepolarizing muscle relaxant, the PACU RN must ensure complete neuromuscular recovery to prevent respiratory failure. Option B is correct because verifying the specific reversal agent, dosage, and timing during the handoff allows the nurse to anticipate potential respiratory compromise or recurarization. Option A is incorrect because the patient is typically already extubated before PACU transfer unless they are being transferred to an intensive care unit. Option C is dangerous, as administering additional opioids without fully assessing respiratory status in an OSA patient risks severe hypoventilation. Option D is a good monitoring strategy, but clarifying the medication administration details during the active handoff communication is the most critical step to guide subsequent clinical decisions.

🔑 Key takeaway

Handoff communication must explicitly detail neuromuscular blockade reversal to ensure respiratory safety.

Question 2

87 of 200. A patient arriving in Phase II PACU is breathing deeply and coughing freely but requires supplemental oxygen at two liters per minute to maintain an oxygen saturation of 94%. How should the nurse document the respiratory and oxygenation components of the modified Aldrete score?

Why C is the answer

The modified Aldrete score separates respiration and oxygen saturation into distinct categories. Because the patient is breathing deeply and coughing freely, they earn a full respiration score of 2. However, because they require supplemental oxygen to maintain an oxygen saturation above 90%, they earn an oxygenation score of 1. A score of 2 for oxygenation requires maintaining saturation above 92% on room air. Therefore, assigning a 1 for respiration is incorrect because their breathing effort is uncompromised, and assigning a 2 for oxygenation is incorrect because they are not on room air.

🔑 Key takeaway

The modified Aldrete score evaluates mechanical breathing effort independently from the need for supplemental oxygen therapy.

Question 3

96 of 200. After a complex procedure, the patient transferred to PACU safely. The perioperative nurse is now directing room turnover and managing the environmental cleaning process. Which task should the nurse delegate?

Why D is the answer

Mopping the floor is a routine environmental cleaning task that does not require clinical judgment, making it highly appropriate for delegation during room turnover. Option A is incorrect because sorting contaminated instruments is typically the responsibility of the scrub person or sterile processing personnel to prevent sharps injuries and instrument damage. Option B is incorrect because the surgical team must reconcile all sharps before disposal to maintain safety. Option C is incorrect because evaluating waste requires a judgment-based assessment of proper segregation, whereas the UAP should simply follow established protocols for removal.

🔑 Key takeaway

Environmental cleaning and room turnover tasks are standard, safe delegations for trained unlicensed assistive personnel.

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Question 1

8 of 15. The electronic health record is restored after a two-hour outage, and the patient has already been transferred to the PACU. What is the appropriate action regarding the intraoperative paper record?

  • A) Send the paper record to medical records for scanning.
  • B) Transcribe the downtime paper record into the electronic system.
  • C) Shred the paper record to prevent duplicate legal charting.
  • D) Request the PACU nurse to enter the intraoperative data.

💡 Key Takeaway

The primary circulator is responsible for transcribing intraoperative downtime documentation into the electronic health record upon recovery.

Show rationale

Once the system recovers, the perioperative nurse who provided the care must transcribe the downtime documentation into the electronic health record to ensure continuity of care and accurate billing. Option A is incorrect because simply scanning the document without entering discrete data into the electronic flowsheets often prevents the system from generating automated safety alerts or accurate medication reconciliation. Option C is entirely inappropriate because the original downtime paper record is a legal document that must be retained according to facility policy, often placed in the physical chart alongside the electronic entry. Option D shifts the responsibility inappropriately; the PACU nurse did not witness the intraoperative events and cannot legally or accurately document them. The circulator must complete the data entry.

Question 2

4 of 200. A 39-year-old patient with an active prescription for buprenorphine for opioid use disorder reports refractory severe pain in the PACU following an open reduction internal fixation of the femur. Which pain management strategy is most appropriate for this patient?

  • A) Administer a pure opioid antagonist to reverse the buprenorphine effects.
  • B) Provide standard opioid doses expecting a normal analgesic therapeutic response.
  • C) Withhold all analgesic medications until the buprenorphine is completely metabolized.
  • D) Implement multimodal non-opioid analgesics and targeted regional nerve block techniques.

💡 Key Takeaway

Buprenorphine blocks standard opioids, requiring multimodal non-opioid analgesia and regional techniques for effective postoperative pain control.

Show rationale

Patients with an active prescription for buprenorphine have high-affinity partial agonist binding at the mu-opioid receptors, which blocks standard full-agonist opioids and complicates postoperative pain management. The best approach for refractory severe pain is to implement multimodal non-opioid analgesics and regional anesthesia. Option A is incorrect because administering an antagonist like naloxone will precipitate severe acute withdrawal and worsen the pain. Option B is incorrect because the high receptor affinity of buprenorphine prevents standard opioid doses from achieving a normal therapeutic effect. Option C is incorrect and unethical; withholding all analgesia violates the standard of care for pain management, as alternative non-opioid modalities can and should be utilized.

Question 3

20 of 200. A young, muscular male experienced a severe, prolonged laryngospasm upon extubation that was eventually broken with positive pressure. Thirty minutes later in the PACU, he develops pink frothy sputum and rapidly declining oxygen saturation.

  • A) Suspect an acute pulmonary embolism event
  • B) Anticipate immediate treatment for anaphylactic shock
  • C) Prepare for positive end expiratory pressure
  • D) Administer an immediate dose of emergency epinephrine

💡 Key Takeaway

Negative pressure pulmonary edema is a known complication of laryngospasm requiring supportive positive pressure ventilation.

Show rationale

The patient is exhibiting classic signs of negative pressure pulmonary edema (NPPE), a well-documented complication following a severe laryngospasm. This occurs frequently in young, muscular males who can generate massive negative intrathoracic pressure by attempting to inhale against a closed glottis, drawing fluid into the alveoli. The primary treatment is supportive respiratory care, often requiring positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) or continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) to push fluid back out of the alveolar space. Pink frothy sputum is a hallmark of pulmonary edema, not a pulmonary embolism. Anaphylactic shock would present with hypotension and wheezing, making epinephrine inappropriate for this specific fluid-shift complication.

Question 4

22 of 200. A perioperative nurse conducts a follow-up chart review for a patient who underwent a total hip arthroplasty and notes a readmission at 75 days postoperatively for purulent drainage from the subfascial tissue. How should the nurse categorize this event for the facility's quality reporting?

  • A) Record a deep incisional SSI and alert the infection prevention team.
  • B) Record a superficial incisional SSI and alert the operating room manager.
  • C) Record an unrelated healthcare infection and alert the quality control team.
  • D) Record an organ space SSI and alert the surgical department director.

💡 Key Takeaway

Implant procedures require a 90-day surveillance window for deep incisional and organ/space surgical site infections.

Show rationale

According to standard surveillance criteria, procedures involving implants such as a total hip arthroplasty are monitored for 90 days postoperatively. Because the purulent drainage specifically involves the subfascial tissue, it meets the criteria for a deep incisional SSI. Option A correctly identifies both the classification and the appropriate action of alerting infection prevention. Option B is incorrect because superficial infections only involve the skin and subcutaneous tissue. Option C is incorrect because the infection falls within the 90-day window, linking it directly to the index surgery. Option D is incorrect because organ/space infections involve anatomy manipulated below the fascial layer, rather than the fascia itself.

Question 5

46 of 200. A patient is postoperative day zero following gastric bypass. The patient is arousable but lethargic, and the oxygen saturation drops to 88% on room air. Which intervention should the nurse implement to improve oxygenation?

  • A) Elevate the head of the bed to forty-five degrees.
  • B) Initiate high-flow oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
  • C) Administer the prescribed intravenous reversal agent for opioids.
  • D) Perform deep nasopharyngeal suctioning to clear the airway.

💡 Key Takeaway

Elevating the head of the bed improves diaphragmatic excursion and oxygenation in postoperative bariatric patients.

Show rationale

Option A is the most appropriate initial intervention. In obese patients recovering from abdominal surgery, the supine position causes abdominal contents to press against the diaphragm, significantly reducing functional residual capacity. Elevating the head of the bed uses gravity to pull the abdominal contents downward, improving diaphragmatic excursion and rapidly increasing oxygenation. Option B is incorrect as a first step; while supplemental oxygen may be needed, applying a non-rebreather mask is excessive before attempting simple repositioning. Option C is premature because the patient is arousable, indicating that severe opioid-induced respiratory depression requiring a reversal agent is unlikely at this moment. Option D is invasive, uncomfortable, and unnecessary, as there is no indication in the assessment that the patient has excessive secretions blocking the airway.

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CNOR · Exam Simulator

8 of 15. The electronic health record is restored after a two-hour outage, and the patient has already been tr…

A) Send the paper record to medical records
B) Transcribe the downtime paper record int
C) Shred the paper record to prevent duplic
D) Request the PACU nurse to enter the intr
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