ZQLexPort

CPN: Pediatric Infectious Disease

Recognizing and managing infection in children is central to pediatric nursing. These CPN questions cover common infections, fever management, sepsis recognition, and isolation precautions — each with a full rationale.

2,200+

questions in the app

10+ yrs

exam-prep publishing

Free

on iOS & Android

Built to help you pass faster — by exam-prep publishers with 10+ years' experience

  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every CPN question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed August 2026.

Get the full CPN question bank — free

2,200+ practice questions with rationales on iOS & Android

5.0· 8 ratings

Download on theApp StoreGET IT ONGoogle Play

Test yourself: CPN: Pediatric Infectious Disease

Three CPN practice questions on cpn: pediatric infectious disease — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 2,200+, timed and scored.

Question 1

121 of 150. A 15-year-old athlete presents with a fluctuant abscess on the thigh with surrounding cellulitis of 5 cm. Incision and drainage is performed, and culture grows MRSA sensitive to clindamycin, TMP-SMX, and doxycycline. The patient reports a severe sulfa allergy (anaphylaxis). The lab reports that the D-test for clindamycin is positive for inducible resistance. Which antibiotic is most appropriate?

▸ Why C is the answer

The positive D-test signals inducible clindamycin resistance, so clindamycin may fail during treatment. The sulfa allergy absolutely contraindicates TMP-SMX. Doxycycline, a tetracycline, is effective against MRSA and, in this adolescent, is a safe, recommended oral option for a mild-to-moderate skin infection. Linezolid is an oxazolidinone reserved for severe or multidrug-resistant infections; using it here would be unnecessarily broad. Thus, doxycycline provides targeted therapy that respects both the resistance markers and the patient’s allergy history.

🔑 Key takeaway

A positive D-test rules out clindamycin; doxycycline is safe for adolescents with MRSA.

Question 2

130 of 150. A 4-month-old infant with a history of congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection passed the newborn ABR screen. The parents report the infant startles to loud noises but are concerned about future hearing loss. Which screening plan is most appropriate for this specific viral risk factor?

▸ Why D is the answer

Congenital CMV is a leading cause of progressive sensorineural hearing loss in childhood. Passing the initial newborn screen does not eliminate this risk, making discharge (Option A) highly inappropriate. These children require frequent, objective monitoring to catch delayed-onset deficits. Diagnostic auditory brainstem response (ABR) or comprehensive behavioral testing is recommended every six months until age three (Option D). Visual reinforcement audiometry monthly (Option B) is excessive and impractical. Annual OAE testing (Option C) is insufficient because it evaluates only the cochlea and is performed too infrequently to catch the rapid progression typical of CMV-related hearing loss.

🔑 Key takeaway

Congenital CMV requires frequent audiological monitoring due to the high risk of delayed-onset sensorineural hearing loss.

Question 3

134 of 150. A 15-year-old is admitted with fever, vomiting, and confusion. She has desquamation on her palms and soles, and her blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg. Based on the suspected diagnosis, which laboratory findings should the nurse practitioner anticipate?

▸ Why B is the answer

Toxic shock syndrome is caused by a bacterial superantigen that triggers a massive, unregulated immune response, leading to capillary leak, profound hypotension, and subsequent multi-organ failure. Given that the patient's blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg alongside classic dermatologic signs, Option B is correct because impaired systemic perfusion and direct toxin effects typically cause acute kidney injury (elevated creatinine) and liver dysfunction (elevated transaminases). Option A is incorrect because this syndrome usually presents with thrombocytopenia due to consumption, not an elevated platelet count. Option C is incorrect as the blood urea nitrogen would be elevated due to poor renal perfusion, and coagulopathies are quite common. Option D is incorrect because multi-organ dysfunction often includes elevated, rather than decreased, bilirubin levels.

🔑 Key takeaway

Toxic shock syndrome causes multi-organ dysfunction, typically presenting with elevated creatinine, transaminases, and thrombocytopenia.

Unlock all 2,232 CPN practice questions, including 15 full-length mock exams

Timed, scored, with progress tracking and every answer explained. Free to start.

Download on theApp StoreGET IT ONGoogle Play

Question 1

7 of 150. An 8-year-old child is admitted for a five-day course of intravenous antibiotics and requires a new peripheral intravenous catheter. Which anatomical location provides the most durable and appropriate access for this therapy?

  • A) Dorsal venous network of the dominant hand
  • B) Volar aspect of the non-dominant inner wrist
  • C) Median cubital vein in the antecubital fossa
  • D) Cephalic vein on the non-dominant mid-forearm✓

💡 Key Takeaway

For multi-day therapies, select a straight vein on the non-dominant forearm to maximize dwell time and comfort.

Show rationale

The non-dominant mid-forearm is the preferred site for multi-day therapies because it avoids areas of flexion, reducing the risk of mechanical phlebitis and dislodgement. The dominant hand (Option A) should be avoided to preserve the child's ability to play and eat. The inner wrist (Option B) is highly sensitive and carries a risk of nerve injury. The antecubital fossa (Option C) is an area of flexion that frequently leads to premature catheter failure.

Question 2

30 of 150. A 6-month-old infant is admitted with a fever of 103.1°F and a bulging anterior fontanel while sleeping. The infant is difficult to arouse. Which action should the nurse take?

  • A) Document the finding as a normal variation for this age.
  • B) Administer an antipyretic and reassess the fontanel in one hour.
  • C) Implement droplet precautions and prepare for a lumbar puncture.✓
  • D) Provide oral rehydration fluids to treat the underlying fever.

💡 Key Takeaway

A true bulging fontanel at rest with fever and lethargy strongly indicates a central nervous system infection.

Show rationale

A bulging fontanel in a resting, sleeping infant combined with a high fever and altered level of consciousness strongly suggests an infectious neurological process like bacterial meningitis. Implementing droplet precautions and preparing for cerebrospinal fluid analysis is critical. Option A is incorrect because a bulging fontanel at rest is never a normal variation. Option B is unsafe; while antipyretics treat the fever, delaying further neurological evaluation for an hour could be life-threatening. Option D is incorrect because oral fluids do not address the acute risk of increased intracranial pressure or the underlying central nervous system infection.

Question 3

51 of 150. A 3-year-old child is recovering from pneumonia and is refusing oral liquid antibiotics from the nurse. Which action best empowers the patient while ensuring therapeutic goals are met?

  • A) Ask whether they prefer taking the medicine from a cup or a syringe.✓
  • B) Explain how the medication helps their body fight the current infection.
  • C) Tell them they can choose to take the medication now or after lunch.
  • D) Mix the prescribed medication into a full glass of their favorite juice.

💡 Key Takeaway

Toddlers require limited, acceptable choices to foster autonomy without compromising essential medical treatments.

Show rationale

Toddlers are navigating the developmental stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt, making them prone to refusal if they feel powerless. Offering a limited, acceptable choice like the delivery method empowers them while maintaining the non-negotiable boundary of taking the medication. Explaining the physiological mechanism is developmentally inappropriate and exceeds their cognitive comprehension. Allowing them to delay the medication inappropriately compromises the treatment schedule. Mixing the medication into a large volume of liquid is contraindicated because the child may not finish the drink, leading to an incomplete dose.

Question 4

55 of 150. A 4-year-old with autism spectrum disorder exhibits extreme oral aversion and frequent head-banging when frustrated. The nurse must obtain an accurate temperature during a sick visit for a fever.

  • A) Utilize a temporal artery thermometer while the parent holds the child.✓
  • B) Insert an oral thermometer while distracting the child with a toy.
  • C) Obtain a rectal temperature to ensure the most accurate clinical reading.
  • D) Use a tympanic thermometer after wrapping the child in a blanket.

💡 Key Takeaway

Select minimally invasive assessment tools to safely accommodate specific sensory aversions and prevent behavioral escalation.

Show rationale

Selecting the appropriate assessment tool requires balancing clinical accuracy with the patient's specific sensory aversions. Utilizing a temporal artery thermometer while the parent holds the child provides a rapid, non-invasive measurement that completely avoids the oral cavity, respecting the child's extreme oral aversion. Attempting to insert an oral thermometer while distracting the child (Option B) directly challenges their specific aversion and is highly likely to fail or cause distress. Obtaining a rectal temperature (Option C) is unnecessarily invasive for a routine sick visit and could easily trigger the child's history of head-banging due to severe distress. Using a tympanic thermometer after wrapping the child (Option D) involves physical restraint and head manipulation, which also risks triggering head-banging behavior. The temporal method offers the safest, most sensory-friendly approach to gathering vital signs in this scenario.

Question 5

102 of 150. A 14-year-old adolescent is admitted with sudden onset fever, nuchal rigidity, and a petechial rash on the lower extremities. Lumbar puncture results are pending. Which infection control measure should the nurse implement?

  • A) Implement airborne precautions and require N95 respirators for all staff.
  • B) Implement droplet precautions and require surgical masks for all staff.✓
  • C) Implement contact precautions and require gowns and gloves for staff.
  • D) Implement standard precautions and require face shields for all staff.

💡 Key Takeaway

Suspected meningococcal infections require immediate implementation of droplet precautions using standard surgical masks.

Show rationale

The clinical presentation strongly suggests Neisseria meningitidis, which requires immediate droplet precautions upon suspicion. Healthcare workers must wear surgical masks when within three feet of the patient to prevent transmission via large respiratory droplets. Airborne precautions with N95 respirators are reserved for pathogens like tuberculosis or measles, which remain suspended in the air. Contact precautions are primarily for pathogens spread by direct physical contact, and standard precautions alone are inadequate for suspected bacterial meningitis.

Practice the full CPN bank in the app

You've seen a sample. Get the complete experience — a timed exam simulator, every rationale, and progress tracking that shows exactly what to study next.

This page shows a few free samples. The app has all 2,200+ CPN questions, a timed mock exam, and offline study.

★★★★★5.0 · 8 App Store ratings
  • ✓ 2,200+ real CPN questions
  • ✓ Timed exam simulator — real conditions
  • ✓ Every answer explained + key takeaway
  • ✓ Tracks your weak topics
  • ✓ Works offline · Free to start

Get the full CPN question bank — free

2,200+ practice questions with rationales on iOS & Android

Download on theApp StoreGET IT ONGoogle Play
CPN · Exam Simulator

7 of 150. An 8-year-old child is admitted for a five-day course of intravenous antibiotics and requires a new …

A) Dorsal venous network of the dominant ha
B) Volar aspect of the non-dominant inner w
C) Median cubital vein in the antecubital f
D) Cephalic vein on the non-dominant mid-fo
Submit Answer

Authoritative sources