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Pediatric Safety and Injury Prevention Questions

Anticipatory guidance is examinable because it is a nursing intervention: the advice that fits a six-month-old is wrong for a toddler. These questions cover car seat stages, drowning and poisoning prevention, home safety, and matching the safety message to the child developmental stage.

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Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed September 2026.

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Test yourself: Injury Prevention and Safety

Three CPN practice questions on injury prevention and safety — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 2,200+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A 16-year-old with a history of depression is preparing for discharge, and the nurse is creating a discharge safety plan.

Why C is the answer

Guiding the adolescent to identify their own warning signs and preferred contacts respects their input and ensures the safety plan is personalized and realistic. This collaborative approach increases the likelihood that the teen will actually use the plan. Option A is incorrect because focusing exclusively on the parents removes the teen from the process, failing to build their self-regulation skills. Option B is incorrect because a standardized contract does not reflect the adolescent's unique triggers or coping strategies, making it less effective than a personalized plan. Option D is incorrect because simply reminding the teen to call a hotline is a directive approach that lacks the comprehensive, collaborative planning needed for effective mental health support. Engaging teens directly is vital.

🔑 Key takeaway

Collaborative safety planning that respects the adolescent's input is more effective than standardized or parent-directed interventions.

Question 2

A pediatric nurse is given an assignment that exceeds safe acuity limits. After notifying the charge nurse, no staffing adjustments are made. What is the most appropriate professional action?

Why C is the answer

When an assignment is deemed unsafe due to high patient acuity and no adjustments are made, the nurse must ensure patient abandonment does not occur. Accepting the assignment while filing an assignment despite objection (ADO) or formal report (C) protects the patients while formally documenting the unsafe condition. Refusing the assignment and leaving (A) constitutes patient abandonment. Informing families (B) is unprofessional and increases anxiety. Delegating vital signs (D) may help slightly but does not resolve the overall unsafe acuity burden.

🔑 Key takeaway

Nurses must protect patients from abandonment while formally documenting unsafe acuity assignments through proper channels.

Question 3

A nurse on a pediatric surgical unit is planning preoperative preparation for a 3-year-old scheduled for a tonsillectomy. The child has never been hospitalized. The nurse decides to use medical play to help the child cope.

Why D is the answer

Active medical play with toy replicas enables preschoolers to gain mastery through concrete, hands-on role-play, which is developmentally appropriate. Option A may frighten the child because real equipment, though supervised, can be intimidating; it is not recommended as initial play. Option B uses static images that are too abstract for a 3-year-old and do not allow active processing. Option C, while soothing, is passive and does not offer the child agency to work through anxiety. Option D directly engages the child in rehearsing the event, reducing fear and promoting coping, making it the best practice according to child life standards.

🔑 Key takeaway

Active medical play with toy replicas helps preschoolers process and master surgical fears.

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Question 1

116 of 150. A 16-year-old male presents for a routine well-child visit and reports drinking at parties. While his parents wait outside, the nurse conducts a substance use screen. Which screening question specifically assesses for alcohol-induced amnesia?

  • A) Do you ever drink alcohol just to relax?
  • B) Do you forget what you did while drinking?
  • C) Do you drink alcohol while you are alone?
  • D) Do you ride in cars with intoxicated drivers?

💡 Key Takeaway

The CRAFFT screening tool specifically assesses for alcohol-induced blackouts using the "Forget" question.

Show rationale

The correct answer is B because the "Forget" question in the CRAFFT screening tool directly targets alcohol-induced amnesia or blackouts. Option A assesses using substances for coping, which addresses the "Relax" component. Option C assesses solitary use, addressing the "Alone" component, which indicates higher risk but not amnesia. Option D assesses environmental safety and risk-taking behavior, addressing the "Car" component, rather than memory loss.

Question 2

138 of 150. A 2-year-old with bronchopulmonary dysplasia and a size 4.0 cuffed tracheostomy is being assessed during a home visit. The parents report a recent increase in thick secretions. The nurse evaluates the emergency travel bag.

  • A) Ensure a size 4.0 and 4.5 tracheostomy tube are present.
  • B) Ensure a size 4.0 and 3.5 tracheostomy tube are present.
  • C) Ensure a size 4.5 and 3.5 tracheostomy tube are present.
  • D) Ensure a size 3.5 and 3.0 tracheostomy tube are present.

💡 Key Takeaway

A tracheostomy travel bag must always contain the current tube size and one size smaller.

Show rationale

Safety standards dictate that a child with a tracheostomy must always have two backup tubes available: one of the same size and one that is one size smaller. Option B is correct because the smaller tube (3.5) ensures an airway can be established if the stoma tightens during an emergency decannulation. Option A is incorrect because a larger tube (4.5) could cause trauma or fail to insert. Option C is incorrect as it lacks the primary size 4.0 tube. Option D is incorrect because it provides tubes that are too small, which would increase airway resistance and fail to provide an adequate seal for ventilation.

Question 3

150 of 150. A 15-year-old with borderline personality traits is on 1:1 observation and becomes increasingly agitated, pacing the room while refusing to speak to the observer.

  • A) Stand directly in front of the patient to block their pacing path.
  • B) Leave the room to give space while watching through the door window.
  • C) Maintain a safe distance within the room while offering calm verbal redirection.
  • D) Call security immediately to apply physical restraints before the agitation escalates further.

💡 Key Takeaway

During 1:1 observation observers must balance maintaining a safe physical presence with therapeutic de-escalation techniques.

Show rationale

When a patient on 1:1 observation becomes agitated, the observer must maintain line of sight while ensuring personal safety. Keeping a safe distance prevents physical confrontation while allowing for verbal redirection and de-escalation. Blocking the patient's path can be perceived as threatening and escalate the agitation. Leaving the room breaks the required immediate physical presence of a 1:1 watch. Calling security for physical restraints is premature at this stage, as restraints are reserved for situations where the patient is an immediate physical danger to themselves or others and less restrictive measures have failed.

Question 4

2 of 150. A 12-year-old student with a history of severe peanut allergy is practicing with a training device for a newly prescribed epinephrine auto-injector. Which step-by-step action indicates that the student understands the correct technique?

  • A) Remove the safety cap and press the tip against the upper arm muscle.
  • B) Hold the injector in place for thirty seconds after the loud click sounds.
  • C) Remove the safety cap and push the tip firmly into the outer thigh.
  • D) Massage the injection site vigorously for five minutes after removing the training device.

💡 Key Takeaway

Epinephrine auto-injectors must be administered firmly into the vastus lateralis muscle of the outer thigh.

Show rationale

A 12-year-old student with a history of severe peanut allergy must master the exact steps while practicing with a training device. The correct step-by-step sequence involves removing the safety cap and pushing the tip firmly into the outer thigh to reach the vastus lateralis muscle. Option A is incorrect because epinephrine auto-injectors are designed for the thigh rather than the upper arm. Option B is incorrect because current guidelines recommend holding the device in place for only three to ten seconds depending on the brand. Option D is incorrect because vigorous massage for five minutes is unnecessary and could cause tissue damage.

Question 5

25 of 150. A 14-year-old is placed on a 1:1 suicide watch after expressing a plan to hang themselves. The nurse is preparing the patient's hospital room.

  • A) Remove all personal clothing and provide only paper scrubs for the patient.
  • B) Secure all medical tubing and ensure the call bell is easily accessible.
  • C) Remove the call bell cord, medical tubing, and personal device charging cables.
  • D) Place the patient in physical restraints until a psychiatric evaluation is completed.

💡 Key Takeaway

Environmental safety sweeps for suicidal patients must eliminate all potential ligature risks from the immediate surroundings.

Show rationale

A patient with a specific plan for hanging is at extreme risk, requiring a thorough environmental safety sweep to remove all ligature risks. Items like call bell cords, IV tubing, and charging cables can be used for strangulation and must be removed from the room. Leaving the call bell accessible or simply securing medical tubing fails to eliminate the hazard. While removing personal clothing might be part of a broader admission protocol, paper scrubs are not universally required if safe hospital garments are provided. Physical restraints are a last resort for imminent physical violence, not a standard substitute for 1:1 observation and environmental safety.

Question 6

35 of 150. A preschooler recently displaced by a severe regional hurricane presents with new-onset nocturnal enuresis and severe separation anxiety. How should the nurse practitioner address these symptoms?

  • A) Prescribe nocturnal desmopressin to rapidly manage the distressing urinary symptoms.
  • B) Refer the child for intensive inpatient psychiatric evaluation and stabilization.
  • C) Implement trauma-informed psychosocial support while normalizing these acute stress responses.
  • D) Advise strict behavioral modification charts to extinguish the separation anxiety.

💡 Key Takeaway

Regression and anxiety are common acute stress responses in displaced children requiring trauma-informed normalization.

Show rationale

Children displaced by natural disasters frequently exhibit behavioral regression, such as enuresis and separation anxiety. The best approach is to provide trauma-informed psychosocial support (Option C) and reassure the caregivers that these are normal, temporary acute stress responses to a profound loss of safety. Prescribing desmopressin (Option A) inappropriately medicalizes a psychological stress response; medication is not indicated for secondary enuresis triggered by acute trauma. Referring the child for inpatient psychiatric evaluation (Option B) is an extreme overreaction to expected adjustment behaviors and would cause further traumatic separation from the caregivers. Advising strict behavioral modification charts (Option D) is punitive and counterproductive; the child needs reassurance and emotional security to process the displacement, not rigid behavioral extinguishing techniques that ignore the underlying trauma.

Question 7

46 of 150. A 14-year-old patient exhibits physically aggressive behavior requiring four-point restraints to prevent imminent harm to staff. Which regulatory requirement must the nurse ensure is met?

  • A) Secure a face-to-face provider evaluation within one hour.
  • B) Obtain a written restraint renewal order every four hours.
  • C) Request a standing order for behavioral restraint application protocols.
  • D) Ensure a provider assesses the patient within four hours.

💡 Key Takeaway

Violent or behavioral restraints require a face-to-face provider evaluation within one hour of application.

Show rationale

The application of a behavioral restraint for violent or self-destructive behavior carries strict regulatory mandates, including the requirement for a face-to-face provider evaluation within one hour of application to ensure the patient's safety and assess the ongoing need. Option B is incorrect because, for a 14-year-old (age 9-17), behavioral restraint orders must be renewed every two hours, not four. Option C is incorrect as standing orders for restraints are never permitted under any circumstances. Option D describes the initial evaluation timeframe often mistakenly associated with medical-surgical restraints or adult behavioral restraints, but it is dangerously late for a pediatric behavioral restraint scenario.

Question 8

48 of 150. A 6-year-old child evaluated two weeks after a hurricane presents with new-onset enuresis and night terrors.

  • A) Explain this represents an expected acute stress response.
  • B) Refer for immediate trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy.
  • C) Evaluate the child for post-traumatic stress disorder criteria.
  • D) Recommend pharmacological intervention to manage the night terrors.

💡 Key Takeaway

Regression and sleep disturbances within the first month of a disaster are expected acute stress responses.

Show rationale

When assessing a child two weeks after a hurricane, regression like new-onset enuresis and night terrors are highly typical acute stress responses. The diagnostic timeline is the key differentiator here. Because the trauma occurred less than a month ago, this does not yet meet the criteria for post-traumatic stress disorder, making option C incorrect. Option A is the best choice because reassuring the family normalizes this expected reaction. Option B is premature; immediate trauma-focused cognitive therapy isn't indicated for normal acute stress unless symptoms are exceptionally severe or prolonged. Option D is inappropriate because pharmacological interventions are rarely the first-line treatment for acute sleep disturbances in young children experiencing normal disaster-related stress. Reassurance and establishing a sense of safety are the primary goals during this acute phase.

Question 9

50 of 150. A 15-year-old female presents for a wellness exam. Her older male companion answers all questions while she avoids eye contact.

  • A) Ask the companion to leave the room for a standard private exam.
  • B) Confront the companion directly about dominating the adolescent's clinical interview.
  • C) Request hospital security to immediately escort the companion from the unit.
  • D) Document the controlling behavior and proceed with the physical assessment.

💡 Key Takeaway

Separating the patient from a companion using routine clinical protocols is the first step in trafficking assessment.

Show rationale

When assessing a pediatric patient where human trafficking is suspected, the most critical initial step is to safely separate the patient from the accompanying adult. The companion answering all questions and the adolescent avoiding eye contact are classic red flags of control. Asking the companion to leave for a standard private exam is a trauma-informed approach that provides a safe space for disclosure without raising the suspected trafficker's suspicion. Confronting the companion directly is dangerous and could escalate the situation or lead to retaliation against the adolescent. Requesting security is premature unless there is an immediate physical threat to staff or the patient. Documenting the behavior and proceeding with the physical assessment without attempting to separate the patient misses a critical opportunity to screen the adolescent privately and ensure their immediate safety.

Question 10

52 of 150. A 15-year-old transgender male presents for a well-visit. The intake form indicates a chosen name and he/him pronouns, but the parent uses the patient's deadname during the initial interview. The nurse needs to assess psychosocial well-being. How should the nurse proceed?

  • A) Ask the parent to leave before discussing gender identity.
  • B) Correct the parent's pronoun usage during the joint assessment.
  • C) Document the parent's resistance in the shared medical record.
  • D) Refer the family to a specialist for conflict mediation.

💡 Key Takeaway

Confidentiality and private assessment are essential when navigating gender identity with potentially unsupportive parents.

Show rationale

Discussing gender identity when a parent appears unsupportive requires careful navigation. Asking the parent to step out allows you to assess the teen's safety and preferences privately. Option A is correct because it prioritizes confidentiality and creates a safe space for disclosure. Option B is incorrect; correcting the parent in front of the teen might escalate conflict or inadvertently out the patient if they haven't fully disclosed their identity at home. Option C is a near-miss, but documenting sensitive information in a shared record can breach safety if parents have portal access. Option D is premature; you must first understand the teen's perspective privately before initiating any family mediation.

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CPN · Exam Simulator

116 of 150. A 16-year-old male presents for a routine well-child visit and reports drinking at parties. While …

A) Do you ever drink alcohol just to relax?
B) Do you forget what you did while drinkin
C) Do you drink alcohol while you are alone
D) Do you ride in cars with intoxicated dri
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