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CCRN Cardiovascular Questions

Cardiovascular is 13% of the CCRN (Adult) exam under AACN’s current test plan, about one question in eight. These seven questions cover a pericardial friction rub after MI, checking blood pressure on a patient with an LVAD, reading the arterial waveform, an S4 gallop, first-degree AV block, when an intra-aortic balloon pump must not be used, and taking a safe pulmonary artery occlusion pressure.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed October 2026.

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Question 1 of 5★ 0/5

A patient three days post-myocardial infarction reports sharp retrosternal chest pain that worsens during deep inspiration and eases when sitting up. The nurse prepares to auscultate for a suspected pericardial friction rub. Which technique provides the optimal acoustic environment to detect this cardiac sound?

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Test yourself: CCRN Cardiovascular

Three CCRN practice questions on ccrn cardiovascular — tap an answer for instant feedback. The full simulator has 2,000+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A patient presents with episodic retrosternal chest pain that resolved prior to arrival. Cardiac biomarkers are negative, but the interventional cardiologist suspects Wellens syndrome Type A. Which distinctive electrocardiographic abnormality across precordial leads V2 and V3 should the critical care nurse anticipate finding on the baseline 12-lead ECG?

▸ Why D is the answer

Wellens syndrome Type A features biphasic T waves with initial positivity and terminal negativity in precordial leads V2 and V3, occurring during pain-free intervals and representing critical stenosis of the proximal left anterior descending coronary artery. Deeply inverted, symmetrical T waves without ST-segment elevation characterize Wellens syndrome Type B, which represents the more common variant (comprising approximately 75% of cases) but shares identical clinical implications regarding impending extensive anterior myocardial infarction. Upsloping ST-segment depression with tall, symmetrical T waves describes the de Winter ECG pattern, an anterior STEMI equivalent signifying acute proximal left anterior descending occlusion that requires immediate reperfusion rather than subacute evaluation. Convex ST-segment elevation with terminal negative T waves indicates active transmural myocardial ischemia or evolving acute coronary syndrome rather than the classical pre-infarction reperfusion pattern of Wellens syndrome. Recognizing Wellens syndrome Type A is vital because stress testing is strictly contraindicated and can induce fatal transmural infarction, mandating urgent invasive coronary angiography.

🔑 Key takeaway

Wellens syndrome Type A displays biphasic T waves in V2-V3, warning of critical proximal LAD stenosis.

Question 2

A postoperative cardiac surgery patient with a body surface area of 1.8 m² has a heart rate of 80 beats/min and a thermodilution cardiac output of 4.0 L/min. When calculating and evaluating this patient's stroke volume index, which clinical interpretation should the critical care nurse document?

▸ Why B is the answer

Stroke volume index (SVI) evaluates stroke volume relative to body surface area, with a normal reference range of 35 to 50 mL/beat/m². In this patient, stroke volume is calculated by dividing cardiac output (4,000 mL/min) by heart rate (80 beats/min), yielding 50 mL/beat. Dividing this stroke volume by the body surface area (1.8 m²) produces an SVI of 27.8 mL/beat/m², which is significantly decreased below the normal 35 to 50 mL/beat/m² range. Decreased SVI indicates compromised forward ventricular ejection, frequently seen in postoperative myocardial stunning, hypovolemia, or elevated afterload. The option stating normal within the expected 35 to 50 mL/beat/m² is incorrect because the calculated value of 27.8 mL/beat/m² falls well below this baseline. The option stating low below the normal 55 to 70 mL/beat/m² is incorrect because that range overstates the normal indexed value; normal stroke volume index is roughly 35 to 50 mL/beat/m², while unindexed stroke volume is 60 to 100 mL/beat. The option stating normal within the expected 60 to 100 mL/beat/m² is incorrect because that range corresponds to unindexed resting stroke volume in healthy adults, not the indexed value.

🔑 Key takeaway

Normal stroke volume index is 35 to 50 mL/beat/m².

Question 3

A patient with a history of rheumatic fever is admitted with progressive dyspnea on exertion, fatigue, and new-onset atrial fibrillation. The critical care nurse prepares to perform a targeted cardiovascular assessment. Which auscultatory characteristic and examination technique are most consistent with the patient's underlying valvular disorder?

▸ Why B is the answer

Mitral stenosis impairs left ventricular filling during diastole due to structural narrowing of the mitral valve orifice. On cardiac auscultation, it classically produces a low-pitched rumbling diastolic murmur at the apex, best heard with the bell of the stethoscope while the patient is positioned in the left lateral decubitus position. This maneuver brings the cardiac apex closer to the chest wall, accentuating low-frequency diastolic filling sounds, which are often preceded by an opening snap. In contrast, a high-pitched blowing systolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla characterizes mitral regurgitation resulting from retrograde systolic ejection into the left atrium. A harsh crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the base sitting upright describes aortic stenosis, which radiates to the carotid arteries. A soft continuous friction rub heard along the sternal border indicates acute pericarditis caused by inflamed visceral and parietal pericardial layers rubbing together during cardiac motion, rather than structural valvular stenosis.

🔑 Key takeaway

Mitral stenosis produces a low-pitched, rumbling diastolic murmur best heard at the apex in the lateral decubitus position.

Question 1

A patient three days post-myocardial infarction reports sharp retrosternal chest pain that worsens during deep inspiration and eases when sitting up. The nurse prepares to auscultate for a suspected pericardial friction rub. Which technique provides the optimal acoustic environment to detect this cardiac sound?

  • A) Left second intercostal space in supine position
  • B) Cardiac apex placed in left lateral decubitus
  • C) Right second intercostal space during deep inhalation
  • D) Left lower sternal border while leaning forward✓

💡 Key Takeaway

Pericardial friction rubs are best auscultated with the diaphragm at the left lower sternal border while the patient leans forward.

Show rationale

A pericardial friction rub is caused by friction between the inflamed visceral and parietal pericardial layers. It is a high-pitched, scratchy, or grating sound best heard using the diaphragm of the stethoscope placed along the left lower sternal border while the patient is leaning forward at end-expiration. This specific maneuver brings the pericardium closer to the anterior chest wall, maximizing sound transmission. The cardiac apex placed in left lateral decubitus position is ideal for identifying low-frequency sounds such as the third and fourth heart sounds (S3 and S4) or the murmur of mitral stenosis using the bell, not a high-pitched superficial friction rub. The right second intercostal space during deep inhalation is the aortic auscultation area, which is utilized for detecting aortic stenosis murmurs rather than pericardial inflammation. The left second intercostal space in supine position corresponds to the pulmonic listening area; examining the patient in a supine position diminishes friction rub intensity by allowing the pericardial surfaces to fall away from the anterior thorax.

Question 2

An adult patient with a continuous-flow left ventricular assist device is admitted to the intensive care unit with melena and dizziness. The automated noninvasive blood pressure cuff repeatedly cycles without displaying a reading. Which technique should the critical care nurse use to evaluate this patient's blood pressure accurately?

  • A) Measure manual opening pressure using a Doppler probe✓
  • B) Estimate perfusion by assessing capillary refill time
  • C) Palpate the radial pulse while releasing pressure
  • D) Auscultate Korotkoff sounds using a manual sphygmomanometer

💡 Key Takeaway

Blood pressure in non-pulsatile left ventricular assist device patients is measured by Doppler opening pressure.

Show rationale

Continuous-flow left ventricular assist devices produce continuous, non-pulsatile or minimally pulsatile systemic arterial blood flow, which frequently prevents standard automated oscillometric cuffs from detecting rhythmic arterial pulsations. Auscultating Korotkoff sounds using a manual sphygmomanometer also relies on pulsatile pressure differentials and typically fails to produce audible sounds in continuous-flow patients. Palpating the radial pulse while releasing cuff pressure is unreliable because the peripheral pulse is often faint or absent. Therefore, the critical care nurse must measure the manual opening pressure using a Doppler probe placed over the radial or brachial artery while slowly deflating a manual blood pressure cuff. The point at which the continuous Doppler arterial flow sound resumes represents the opening pressure, which clinically correlates directly to the patient's mean arterial pressure. Estimating perfusion by assessing capillary refill time provides qualitative data regarding peripheral microcirculation but fails to quantify arterial blood pressure, which is essential to prevent device-related complications such as reduced pump flow, pump thrombosis, and stroke.

Question 3

During hemodynamic monitoring of a critically ill patient following valve replacement, the nurse analyzes the radial arterial pressure waveform displayed on the bedside monitor. The nurse identifies the downward deflection on the descending limb known as the dicrotic notch. Which specific mechanical cardiac event directly produces this characteristic waveform feature?

  • A) Closure of the mitral valve
  • B) Opening of the tricuspid valve
  • C) Opening of the pulmonic valve
  • D) Closure of the aortic valve✓

💡 Key Takeaway

The dicrotic notch on an arterial pressure waveform marks aortic valve closure and designates the transition from systole to diastole.

Show rationale

On a systemic arterial pressure waveform, closure of the aortic valve generates the downward deflection and transient pressure rise known as the dicrotic notch, which marks the termination of mechanical ventricular systole and the onset of ventricular diastole. As left ventricular pressure precipitously drops below aortic root pressure, blood momentarily flows back toward the left ventricle, abruptly snapping the aortic valve leaflets shut and generating a rebound pressure wave. Closure of the mitral valve occurs at the onset of ventricular systole, producing the first heart sound (S1) and occurring prior to the initial upstroke of the arterial waveform. Opening of the pulmonic valve occurs during right ventricular systole when right ventricular pressure exceeds pulmonary arterial pressure, exerting no direct mechanical effect on the systemic arterial waveform. Opening of the tricuspid valve occurs during early right ventricular diastole when atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure to facilitate passive ventricular filling, having no direct contribution to systemic arterial pressure contours or the formation of the dicrotic notch.

Question 4

A patient with long-standing uncontrolled hypertension and concentric left ventricular hypertrophy is admitted with acute chest tightness. On physical examination, the nurse notes a prominent low-frequency sound occurring in late diastole immediately preceding the first heart sound. Which pathophysiologic mechanism accounts for the generation of this extra cardiac sound?

  • A) Atrial kick against a noncompliant, stiff ventricle✓
  • B) Sudden deceleration of blood hitting fibrotic leaflets
  • C) Rapid passive ventricular filling into overloaded chambers
  • D) Vigorous early diastolic recoil of dilated myocardium

💡 Key Takeaway

An S4 gallop represents active atrial contraction forcing blood into a stiff, noncompliant ventricle in late diastole.

Show rationale

An S4 gallop is an abnormal late diastolic heart sound heard immediately before S1. It is generated during active atrial contraction when the atrium expels blood against a noncompliant, stiff ventricle, commonly caused by chronic hypertension, left ventricular hypertrophy, or myocardial ischemia. Rapid passive ventricular filling into overloaded chambers describes an S3 gallop, which occurs in early diastole during the rapid filling phase and is typically associated with volume overload, heart failure, or severe mitral regurgitation. Sudden deceleration of blood hitting fibrotic leaflets incorrectly suggests a mechanical valve click, opening snap, or murmur caused by structural valvular stenosis. Vigorous early diastolic recoil of dilated myocardium is not a recognized mechanism of an extra heart sound, and any early diastolic event would follow S2 rather than occur in late diastole just before S1. Differentiating S4 from S3 is clinically vital because an S4 reflects altered compliance and diastolic dysfunction, whereas an S3 primarily signifies elevated filling pressures and volume overload. Auscultation using the bell at the cardiac apex in the left lateral decubitus position optimizes detection of this sound.

Question 5

A patient recovering from cardiac surgery is placed on telemetry monitoring. The nurse analyzes the rhythm strip and observes regular sinus P waves occurring before every QRS complex, a constant PR interval measuring 0.28 seconds, and no dropped ventricular beats. Which conduction abnormality does this rhythm strip represent?

  • A) Second-degree atrioventricular block Type I
  • B) Second-degree atrioventricular block Type II
  • C) First-degree atrioventricular block✓
  • D) Third-degree complete atrioventricular block

💡 Key Takeaway

First-degree atrioventricular block is characterized by a constant PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds with 1:1 AV conduction and no dropped beats.

Show rationale

First-degree atrioventricular block is characterized by delayed conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in a prolonged PR interval greater than 0.20 seconds that remains constant from beat to beat, with every P wave successfully conducted to the ventricles without dropped QRS complexes. In this patient, a constant PR interval of 0.28 seconds without non-conducted beats defines first-degree atrioventricular block. Second-degree atrioventricular block Type I is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval over successive cardiac cycles until a P wave fails to conduct and a QRS complex is dropped. Second-degree atrioventricular block Type II demonstrates intermittent non-conducted P waves with dropped QRS complexes while the conducted beats maintain a strictly constant PR interval, usually in the setting of infranodal conduction system disease. Third-degree complete atrioventricular block is marked by total atrioventricular dissociation where P waves and QRS complexes fire completely independently at their own intrinsic rates, resulting in variable PR intervals and no consistent physiological relationship between atria and ventricles.

Question 6

A patient in cardiogenic shock secondary to acute myocardial infarction is evaluated for mechanical circulatory support. While reviewing the bedside transesophageal echocardiogram report and clinical parameters, the critical care nurse alerts the interventional team. Which diagnostic finding represents an ABSOLUTE contraindication to the placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump?

  • A) acute ischemic mitral valve regurgitation
  • B) postinfarction ventricular septal rupture defect
  • C) medically refractory sustained ventricular tachycardia
  • D) severe chronic aortic valve regurgitation✓

💡 Key Takeaway

Severe aortic regurgitation is an absolute contraindication to intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation due to worsening left ventricular distention.

Show rationale

Severe chronic aortic valve regurgitation is an absolute contraindication to intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsation. The intra-aortic balloon pump inflates during diastole to augment aortic root diastolic pressure and enhance coronary perfusion. However, in the setting of severe aortic regurgitation, diastolic balloon inflation forces large volumes of blood backward through the incompetent aortic valve into the left ventricle, causing massive left ventricular volume overload, acute left ventricular distention, pulmonary edema, and cardiogenic collapse. In contrast, acute ischemic mitral valve regurgitation is a primary indication for balloon counterpulsation, as systolic deflation reduces left ventricular afterload, promoting forward stroke volume and reducing regurgitant flow into the left atrium. Postinfarction ventricular septal rupture defect is also an established indication for intra-aortic counterpulsation, where afterload reduction diminishes left-to-right shunting until definitive surgical repair is performed. Medically refractory sustained ventricular tachycardia is a complication of cardiogenic shock that may benefit from hemodynamic unloading, not an absolute contraindication, although counterpulsation tracking can be challenging.

Question 7

A critical care nurse is obtaining a pulmonary artery occlusion pressure measurement in a mechanically ventilated patient with septic shock and acute cor pulmonale. To obtain an accurate waveform while preventing catastrophic complications such as pulmonary artery rupture or pulmonary infarction, the nurse must adhere to which operational limit?

  • A) Inflate maximum 1.5 mL air for under 15 seconds✓
  • B) Inflate maximum 1.5 mL saline for under 30 seconds
  • C) Inflate maximum 2.0 mL air for under 30 seconds
  • D) Inflate maximum 2.5 mL saline for under 15 seconds

💡 Key Takeaway

Pulmonary artery catheter balloon inflation must never exceed 1.5 mL of air or 15 seconds to avoid pulmonary artery rupture and infarction.

Show rationale

To safely measure pulmonary artery occlusion pressure, the balloon must be inflated with no more than 1.5 mL of air and left inflated for no longer than 15 seconds. The balloon should be inflated slowly until the pulmonary artery waveform transitions to an occlusion waveform, and it must then be allowed to deflate passively. Overinflation exceeding 1.5 mL or prolonged wedging beyond 15 seconds carries an extreme risk of lethal pulmonary artery rupture or distal pulmonary infarction. Selecting to inflate maximum 2.0 mL air for under 30 seconds exceeds the physical volume capacity of the balloon—increasing shear stress on the delicate pulmonary vasculature—and doubles the safe duration of occlusion. Inflating with saline, whether selecting to inflate maximum 1.5 mL saline for under 30 seconds or to inflate maximum 2.5 mL saline for under 15 seconds, is strictly contraindicated because liquid cannot rapidly deflate passively, adds excessive hydrostatic weight, and cannot be retrieved easily if the balloon ruptures, predisposing to fatal balloon entrapment or vessel rupture.

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