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CCRN Neurological, Musculoskeletal and Behavioral Questions

Musculoskeletal, Neurological and Behavioral/Psychosocial together make up 18% of the CCRN (Adult) exam. The seven questions here are mostly neurological: the halo test for a CSF leak, why older adults bleed into the subdural space, Kernig sign in meningitis, the lucid interval of an epidural hematoma, diffuse axonal injury, anterior cord syndrome and scoring a falling GCS motor response.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed October 2026.

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Question 1 of 5★ 0/5

A patient admitted with a basilar skull fracture following a motor vehicle collision develops persistent serosanguineous drainage from the right nares. The nurse drips a sample of the drainage onto a sterile white gauze pad. Which bedside finding indicates that the drainage contains cerebrospinal fluid?

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Test yourself: CCRN Neuro, Musculoskeletal and Behavioral

Three CCRN practice questions on ccrn neuro, musculoskeletal and behavioral — tap an answer for instant feedback. The full simulator has 2,000+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A patient with catastrophic intracranial hemorrhage is undergoing formal brain-death evaluation after core body temperature and metabolic parameters are normalized. The intensivist shines a bright penlight into both pupils and notes absent pupillary constriction bilaterally. Which cranial nerves are being evaluated by this specific bedside clinical examination?

▸ Why D is the answer

Brain-death determination requires demonstrating irreversible cessation of all brainstem reflexes. Testing the pupillary light reflex assesses the integrity of cranial nerve two (the optic nerve), which serves as the afferent sensory pathway detecting light, and cranial nerve three (the oculomotor nerve), which serves as the efferent motor pathway innervating the pupillary sphincter muscle to produce constriction. In brain death, pupils are typically fixed in a mid-position or dilated state (4 to 9 mm) and fail to constrict in response to light. Testing cranial nerves three and four assesses vertical extraocular movements, but cranial nerve four is not involved in pupillary constriction. Testing cranial nerves five (trigeminal) and seven (facial) assesses the corneal reflex, in which touching the cornea elicits bilateral blinking. Testing cranial nerves nine (glossopharyngeal) and ten (vagus) assesses the pharyngeal gag reflex and the tracheal cough reflex elicited during endotracheal tube suctioning, rather than the pupillary response.

🔑 Key takeaway

An absent pupillary light reflex during brain-death assessment shows loss of the midbrain reflex arc formed by cranial nerve II (afferent) and cranial nerve III (efferent).

Question 2

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with acute, progressive, symmetrical ascending flaccid paralysis following a recent gastrointestinal illness. A diagnostic lumbar puncture is performed to confirm Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which cerebrospinal fluid analysis pattern should the critical care nurse identify as characteristic of this disorder?

▸ Why A is the answer

Guillain-Barré syndrome (acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy) characteristically displays albuminocytologic dissociation on cerebrospinal fluid analysis, defined as an elevated cerebrospinal fluid protein concentration in the presence of a normal white blood cell count (fewer than 5 cells/microL). This phenomenon reflects widespread inflammatory demyelination and immune-mediated damage along proximal spinal nerve roots, leading to increased protein transudation across the blood-brain barrier without a corresponding intrathecal cellular infiltration. Markedly elevated leukocyte count with decreased glucose concentration is characteristic of acute bacterial meningitis, which presents with fever, meningismus, and altered mental status. Normal protein concentration with significant lymphocytic pleocytosis suggests viral encephalitis or aseptic meningitis rather than an isolated peripheral polyneuropathy. Markedly depressed glucose level with elevated polymorphonuclear cells also strongly indicates bacterial central nervous system infection rather than post-infectious demyelination. Recognizing albuminocytologic dissociation allows the critical care team to confirm the diagnosis rapidly and initiate immunomodulatory therapy, such as intravenous immunoglobulin or therapeutic plasma exchange, before respiratory failure develops.

🔑 Key takeaway

Albuminocytologic dissociation—elevated CSF protein with a normal white blood cell count—is the characteristic CSF finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome, although protein may still be normal in the first week.

Question 3

A trauma patient is admitted following a high-speed motor vehicle collision with an unstable open-book pelvic fracture and signs of hemorrhagic shock. When applying a commercial noninvasive pelvic circumferential compression device, which anatomical landmark should the nurse identify to ensure optimal placement and mechanical stabilization?

▸ Why C is the answer

Pelvic binders and commercial circumferential compression devices are vital noninvasive adjuncts used to reduce pelvic volume, tamponade venous and bony bleeding, and stabilize unstable pelvic ring disruptions such as open-book fractures. For maximal biomechanical efficacy, the binder must be centered directly over the greater trochanters of the femurs. Applying compression at the level of the greater trochanters exerts the greatest mechanical leverage to close the pelvic ring and reduce internal pelvic volume. A common and critical clinical error is placing the binder too high, such as over the iliac crests or the anterior superior iliac spines bilaterally. Compression over the iliac crests or anterior spines can paradoxically cause outward rotation of the lower pelvic ring or crush the iliac wings inward, exacerbating internal hemorrhage and tissue disruption without stabilizing the true pelvis. Placing the binder across the femoral shafts is too low and fails to exert compressive force across the pelvic ring. Correct placement over the greater trochanters must be verified clinically and radiographically.

🔑 Key takeaway

Pelvic binders must be centered directly over the greater trochanters to achieve effective reduction and tamponade.

Question 1

A patient admitted with a basilar skull fracture following a motor vehicle collision develops persistent serosanguineous drainage from the right nares. The nurse drips a sample of the drainage onto a sterile white gauze pad. Which bedside finding indicates that the drainage contains cerebrospinal fluid?

  • A) Clear ring developing around a central blood stain✓
  • B) Formation of a yellowish ring around clear serum
  • C) Uniform pink diffusion across the entire gauze surface
  • D) Central clear droplet surrounded by thick clotted blood

💡 Key Takeaway

A clear halo around central blood on gauze suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak; beta-2 transferrin testing confirms it.

Show rationale

The halo or ring sign is a classical bedside assessment used to detect cerebrospinal fluid leakage in patients with suspected basilar skull fractures. When serosanguineous nasal or otic discharge is placed onto filter paper or sterile gauze, the components separate based on physical density and viscosity; the heavier cellular elements of blood remain in the center, while the clearer, less viscous cerebrospinal fluid diffuses peripherally, producing a clear ring developing around a central blood stain. Uniform pink diffusion across the entire gauze surface reflects homogeneous mixing of serum and erythrocytes without separation, which is characteristic of simple blood dilution or mucus rather than cerebrospinal fluid. A central clear droplet surrounded by thick clotted blood is physiologically backwards, as dense erythrocytes do not migrate faster than aqueous cerebrospinal fluid. Formation of a yellowish ring around clear serum is typical of pure exudative drainage or plasma transudate lacking cellular blood components. While beta-2 transferrin testing is the definitive laboratory standard, identifying the classic halo sign immediately alerts the clinician to cribriform plate or dural disruption.

Question 2

An elderly patient taking warfarin is admitted with progressive confusion and gait unsteadiness after a mechanical fall three weeks ago. Non-contrast head CT demonstrates a crescent-shaped extra-axial collection crossing cranial suture lines. Which vascular structure is the most likely source of this bleeding?

  • A) Basilar venous plexus along the clivus
  • B) Bridging veins traversing the subdural space✓
  • C) Anterior communicating artery within the subarachnoid cisterns
  • D) Middle meningeal artery within the epidural space

💡 Key Takeaway

Subdural hematomas typically result from tearing of bridging cortical veins.

Show rationale

Subdural hematomas develop in the space between the dura mater and arachnoid mater. The classic pathophysiology involves mechanical shearing or tearing of the bridging veins traversing the subdural space, which drain venous blood from the cerebral cortex into the superior sagittal sinus. In elderly individuals, cerebral atrophy stretches these delicate bridging veins, making them extraordinarily susceptible to rupture even after minor head trauma, while anticoagulants like warfarin accelerate hematoma expansion. Middle meningeal artery within the epidural space causes an epidural hematoma, which typically appears as a biconvex, lenticular hyperdensity that does not cross suture lines. Anterior communicating artery within the subarachnoid cisterns is the primary site for saccular aneurysm rupture leading to diffuse subarachnoid hemorrhage rather than a focal extra-axial subdural collection. Basilar venous plexus along the clivus can be injured in high-energy skull base fractures causing petroclival or posterior fossa bleeding, not supratentorial crescentic subdural hematomas. Bridging vein rupture produces insidious low-pressure venous bleeding that crosses cranial sutures while respecting dural reflections.

Question 3

A college student is admitted to the intensive care unit with high fever, severe headache, photophobia, and altered mental status. While performing a focused neurological examination to evaluate for suspected bacterial meningitis, the nurse assesses for meningeal irritation using Kernig sign. Which clinical finding confirms that this physical assessment sign is positive?

  • A) involuntary flexion of hips when neck is flexed
  • B) dorsiflexion of great toe upon stroking lateral foot
  • C) resistance and hamstring pain during passive knee extension✓
  • D) pupillary dilation and bradycardia during gentle cervical flexion

💡 Key Takeaway

Kernig sign is positive when passive extension of the knee with the hip flexed at 90 degrees elicits pain and resistance.

Show rationale

Kernig sign is an established physical assessment maneuver used to identify irritation of the meninges and spinal nerve roots, commonly seen in bacterial meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage. It is elicited with the patient positioned supine; the examiner flexes the hip and knee to 90 degrees and then attempts passive extension of the knee. The sign is positive when passive extension produces resistance and severe hamstring pain caused by stretching inflamed meninges. Involuntary flexion of hips when neck is flexed describes Brudzinski sign, which is an alternative physical manifestation of meningeal inflammation rather than Kernig sign. Pupillary dilation and bradycardia are signs of brainstem compression or impending herniation; they are not elicited by neck flexion and are not a test of meningeal irritation. Dorsiflexion of great toe upon stroking lateral foot describes a positive Babinski response, an indicator of upper motor neuron pathway dysfunction rather than meningeal irritation. Recognizing a positive Kernig sign assists the critical care nurse in prioritizing emergent lumbar puncture, diagnostic imaging, and prompt administration of empiric intravenous antibiotics and corticosteroids.

Question 4

A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision sustained temporal impact, lost consciousness for three minutes, and then became fully alert and oriented with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15. Two hours later, the patient rapidly becomes obtunded with an ipsilateral dilated, sluggish pupil. Which diagnosis is MOST consistent with this trajectory?

  • A) Post-concussive syndrome with persistent vestibular dysfunction
  • B) Subdural hematoma secondary to bridging vein disruption
  • C) Diffuse axonal injury with delayed secondary edema
  • D) Epidural hematoma with acute uncal herniation✓

💡 Key Takeaway

An epidural hematoma is characterized by initial loss of consciousness, a temporary lucid interval, and rapid neurological collapse.

Show rationale

The classic presentation of an epidural hematoma is an initial loss of consciousness caused by the impact, followed by a transient lucid interval during which the patient appears neurologically intact, followed by rapid secondary neurological deterioration. This pathology typically results from fracture of the temporal bone lacerating the middle meningeal artery. Expanding arterial bleeding rapidly strips the dura from the inner skull table, elevating intracranial pressure and precipitating uncal herniation, evidenced by ipsilateral oculomotor nerve compression causing a dilated, sluggish pupil. An acute subdural hematoma results from tearing of cortical bridging veins; it presents with immediate, progressive neurological decline without a pronounced classical lucid interval. Diffuse axonal injury involves widespread shear injury to axons and presents with immediate, prolonged coma from the moment of impact. Post-concussive syndrome presents with headache, dizziness, and cognitive difficulties, never with acute obtundation, pupillary asymmetry, or signs of impending brain herniation.

Question 5

A driver involved in a high-speed rollover motor vehicle collision arrives comatose with a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 4. An initial non-contrast head computed tomography scan shows only minimal punctate hemorrhages along the corpus callosum. Which primary pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse recognize as the cause of this patient's condition?

  • A) bridging cortical venous rupture causing subdural bleeding
  • B) middle meningeal arterial laceration causing expanding hematoma
  • C) direct mechanical impact causing focal parenchymal contusions
  • D) rotational acceleration-deceleration forces causing widespread axonal shearing✓

💡 Key Takeaway

Diffuse axonal injury is caused by rotational shearing forces producing microscopic axonal disruption despite subtle CT findings.

Show rationale

Diffuse axonal injury results from severe rotational acceleration-deceleration forces that generate violent shearing and tensile stresses across brain tissue layers of differing densities. These forces cause microscopic disruption of the neuronal cytoskeleton and widespread axonal tearing, characteristically located at the grey-white matter junction, corpus callosum, and brainstem. Clinically, patients present in immediate and profound coma that is markedly disproportionate to the subtle abnormalities seen on initial computed tomography imaging, which often reveals only faint punctate microhemorrhages. Direct mechanical impact causing focal parenchymal contusions results in localized coup and contrecoup cerebral injuries, which appear as prominent localized hyperdense areas with surrounding edema on initial imaging. Middle meningeal arterial laceration causes an acute epidural hematoma, presenting with a classical biconvex lenticular collection that rapidly expands between the skull and dura. Bridging cortical venous rupture causes an acute subdural hematoma, which forms a crescent-shaped hyperdensity along the cerebral hemisphere. Neither focal contusions nor extra-axial hematomas explain widespread microscopic axonal disruption with an initially unremarkable scan.

Question 6

A patient admitted to the intensive care unit after a motor vehicle collision with a severe hyperflexion cervical spine injury exhibits bilateral flaccid motor paralysis and complete loss of pain and temperature sensation below C6. Vibration and proprioception remain intact. Which spinal cord condition is most consistent with these clinical findings?

  • A) Brown-Sequard syndrome preserving contralateral spinothalamic pathways
  • B) posterior cord syndrome preserving anterior motor horns
  • C) anterior cord syndrome preserving the posterior columns✓
  • D) central cord syndrome preserving lateral corticospinal tracts

💡 Key Takeaway

Anterior cord syndrome disrupts anterior motor and spinothalamic tracts while completely sparing posterior column vibration and proprioception.

Show rationale

Anterior cord syndrome typically results from hyperflexion injuries or occlusion of the anterior spinal artery, leading to ischemia or infarction of the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord. This injury damages the corticospinal tracts, resulting in bilateral loss of motor function below the level of the lesion, and damages the spinothalamic tracts, causing bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Because the dorsal (posterior) columns receive blood supply from the paired posterior spinal arteries, vibration, proprioception, and deep touch sensation are preserved. In contrast, central cord syndrome predominantly affects the central gray matter and medial corticospinal tracts, causing motor weakness and sensory impairment that is significantly greater in the upper extremities than in the lower extremities. Brown-Sequard syndrome is characterized by a spinal cord hemisection producing ipsilateral motor paralysis and loss of proprioception, alongside contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Posterior cord syndrome is a rare condition marked by the isolated loss of proprioception, vibration, and fine touch, while voluntary motor function, pain, and temperature sensation remain completely intact.

Question 7

A patient with an acute subdural hematoma initially demonstrated bilateral arm flexion toward the core with wrist adduction and leg extension in response to central noxious stimulation. One hour later, the patient exhibits rigid extension and adduction of the upper extremities with hyperpronation. How should the nurse document the change in Glasgow Coma Scale motor score?

  • A) motor score decreases from 2 to 1
  • B) motor score increases from 2 to 3
  • C) motor score decreases from 4 to 3
  • D) motor score decreases from 3 to 2✓

💡 Key Takeaway

Decorticate posturing scores 3 on the GCS motor scale, whereas decerebrate posturing scores 2, reflecting progressive brainstem compromise.

Show rationale

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) motor response evaluates central nervous system integrity and serves as a sensitive indicator of neurological deterioration. Decorticate posturing (abnormal flexion), characterized by adduction and flexion of the arms with wrist flexion against the chest and leg extension, indicates cerebral hemispheric dysfunction or midbrain sparing, scoring a 3 on the motor subscale. Decerebrate posturing (abnormal extension), characterized by rigid extension, adduction, and internal rotation/hyperpronation of the upper extremities with plantar flexion, indicates deeper brainstem damage at the pontine or midbrain level, scoring a 2. Therefore, progression from decorticate to decerebrate posturing reflects worsening rostral-to-caudal neurological deterioration with a decrease in the motor score from 3 to 2. A decrease from 4 to 3 would represent a change from withdrawal from pain to abnormal (decorticate) flexion, which is not the change described. A motor score decreases from 2 to 1 indicates progression from extension to flaccidity, rather than abnormal flexion to extension. A motor score increases from 2 to 3 describes neurological improvement from extension to flexion, contradicting the patient's acute neurological herniation pattern.

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