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How Much Does the EPPP Cost? Part 1 and Part 2 Fees

One sitting of Part 1 (Knowledge) of the Examination for Professional Practice in Psychology (EPPP) adds up to $691.88: a $600 USD exam fee plus a $91.88 Pearson VUE test sitting fee. Both are listed in the September 2026 Candidate Handbook from the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB). Both amounts are charged per sitting and neither can be refunded. The $650 exam fee ASPPB has announced from April 1, 2028 belongs to the integrated EPPP, which takes effect in the fourth quarter of 2027, when Part 1 (Knowledge) closes to first-time candidates, and becomes the only exam on April 1, 2028.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed November 2026.

Where do you pay the EPPP fees?
You pay the EPPP exam fee and the Pearson VUE sitting fee in Clarus, which became ASPPB’s candidate registration portal on September 29, 2026. Certemy, still named on some ASPPB web pages, is no longer accessible. After you pay the exam fee you have 12 months to sit, or less if the testing window your board set closes sooner, and Part 1 (Knowledge) closes to first-time candidates when the integrated EPPP takes effect in the fourth quarter of 2027.
Can you reschedule the EPPP for free or get a refund?
No refund is given for any reason on the EPPP exam fee or the test center fee. Under the September 2026 handbook, rescheduling is free more than 31 days before your appointment’s start time and costs $87.50 plus applicable tax from less than 31 days to more than 24 hours before it; within 24 hours, rescheduling or canceling forfeits the exam and test center fees. ASPPB’s fee web page still says 32 days, so allow for the longer cutoff, and read the handbook’s fee table before moving a date close to exam day.
Do you pay again to retake the EPPP?
Yes, because the EPPP fees are priced per sitting, so at the September 2026 amounts another attempt at Part 1 (Knowledge) means another $691.88. You first need your licensing authority’s approval to retake, and no candidate may sit a part more than four times in any 12-month period.
How much does EPPP Part 2 (Skills) cost?
Under the September 2026 handbook, EPPP Part 2 (Skills) has a $450 USD exam fee plus the same $91.88 sitting fee, or $541.88 per sitting by our addition. One attempt at each part therefore adds up to $1,233.76 by our arithmetic, not a single ASPPB price, since the handbook lists the two fees separately. You pay the Part 2 fees only if your jurisdiction requires that part, and you can take it only after passing Part 1 (Knowledge).
How much is ASPPB’s sample EPPP practice exam?
As of November 1, 2026, ASPPB’s sample exams page lists $30 per attempt for its online sample exam (SEPPPO) and $82.50 per attempt at a Pearson Professional Center (SEPPP); the online Part 1 (Knowledge) version has 100 questions. ASPPB offers sample exams for practice only. Because they are made up of old, retired or unused items, it does not recommend them for judging where you need more study.

Before you pay the fee

Five EPPP practice questions show the kind of question you would be paying to sit. Tap an answer for instant feedback and the full rationale. The full simulator has 1,900+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A researcher investigating the neurobiology of arousal, vigilance, and stress responses examines brainstem nuclei responsible for widespread monoaminergic projections. Which specific anatomical structure within the brainstem serves as the primary site for the synthesis of norepinephrine throughout the central nervous system?

▸ Why A is the answer

The locus coeruleus, a dense noradrenergic nucleus located in the dorsal pons of the brainstem, contains the largest concentration of norepinephrine-producing neurons in the central nervous system. Axons projecting from the locus coeruleus innervate virtually the entire neuroaxis, including the cerebral cortex, limbic system, thalamus, and spinal cord, thereby modulating arousal, vigilance, selective attention, and physiological stress responses. The substantia nigra, situated within the midbrain, is incorrect because it is the primary site of dopaminergic neuron cell bodies projecting to the striatum via the nigrostriatal pathway, which is critical for voluntary motor planning and execution. The raphe nuclei are incorrect because they represent the primary synthesis hub for central serotonin rather than norepinephrine, projecting widely across the forebrain to regulate mood, sleep, and visceral function. The nucleus accumbens is incorrect because it is a key telencephalic forebrain structure situated within the ventral striatum that functions as a major target of dopaminergic input from the ventral tegmental area, mediating reward reinforcement rather than serving as a brainstem site of norepinephrine synthesis.

🔑 Key takeaway

The locus coeruleus in the dorsal pons is the principal source of central norepinephrine synthesis.

Question 2

In Harry Harlow's classic attachment research, infant rhesus monkeys were reared with two surrogate mothers: a bare-wire surrogate providing milk and a terrycloth-covered surrogate providing no food. What primary behavioral pattern did the infant monkeys display across these conditions?

▸ Why B is the answer

Harlow's classic studies demonstrated that infant rhesus monkeys spent the vast majority of their time clinging to the terrycloth surrogate mother rather than the bare-wire surrogate mother, even when the wire mother was the sole source of milk. The infants visited the wire surrogate briefly to feed and immediately returned to the cloth surrogate for contact comfort. When frightened by a novel mechanical toy, the infants reliably sought safety and reassurance from the cloth surrogate. These findings disconfirmed drive-reduction and operant conditioning models of attachment, which posited that attachment develops primarily from secondary reinforcement associated with feeding. Saying that infants attached exclusively to whichever surrogate provided consistent caloric reinforcement directly contradicts Harlow's empirical findings. Stating that monkeys preferred the wire surrogate whenever physiological hunger cues emerged is incorrect because preferences consistently favored the cloth surrogate across testing sessions despite hunger states. Asserting that infants bonded equally with both surrogates across varying environmental stressors is inaccurate because contact and security behaviors were directed almost exclusively toward the cloth mother.

🔑 Key takeaway

Harlow demonstrated that tactile contact comfort supersedes nutritional reinforcement in primary attachment bond formation.

Question 3

According to Jean Piaget's cognitive development theory, which infant behavior best exemplifies the substage of primary circular reactions within the sensorimotor stage?

▸ Why A is the answer

In Piaget's sensorimotor stage, primary circular reactions occur during substage 2 (approximately 1 to 4 months of age). These involve simple motor habits that are initially discovered by chance and are centered entirely around the infant's own physical body (such as thumb sucking, hand opening and closing, or vocal play), repeated because they produce pleasurable bodily sensations. In contrast, secondary circular reactions occur during substage 3 (approximately 4 to 8 months of age) and involve actions directed toward the external environment rather than the infant's own body, such as accidentally hitting a hanging crib mobile and repeating the strike or kicking feet repeatedly to produce movement in an external toy. Dropping a toy from different heights to observe varied trajectories is a classic tertiary circular reaction (substage 5, approximately 12 to 18 months), where the infant engages in active trial-and-error experimentation by varying behaviors to discover novel physical outcomes in the external world.

🔑 Key takeaway

Primary circular reactions are repetitive, chance sensorimotor actions centered strictly on the infant's own physical body.

Question 4

A court orders a forensic psychologist to assess whether a criminal defendant is competent to stand trial. According to the landmark legal standard articulated in Dusky v. United States, which competencies must the defendant demonstrate?

▸ Why A is the answer

The Dusky standard (Dusky v. United States, 1960) requires that a defendant have 'sufficient present ability to consult with his lawyer with a reasonable degree of rational understanding' and 'a rational as well as factual understanding of the proceedings against him.' The option focusing on distinguishing right from wrong describes the M'Naghten standard for criminal responsibility (insanity at the time of the offense), not adjudicative competence. The option requiring the complete absence of any documented mental disease is incorrect because a defendant may have a severe mental disorder and still meet the legal threshold for trial competency. The option requiring the defendant to formulate trial strategy and cross-examine witnesses is incorrect because competence to stand trial does not require legal sophistication or the ability to conduct one's own defense.

🔑 Key takeaway

Competency to stand trial requires a factual and rational understanding of proceedings and the ability to consult with counsel.

Question 5

A White client experiences profound guilt and ambivalence after witnessing racial discrimination against a minority coworker. To resolve this psychological discomfort, the client begins endorsing beliefs that White people are inherently superior and deserve their social advantages. According to Helms, which status is exemplified?

▸ Why B is the answer

In Janet Helms's White Racial Identity Development Model, the Reintegration status is characterized by an individual attempting to resolve the intense psychological distress, guilt, and moral conflict experienced during the preceding Disintegration status by explicitly embracing beliefs of White superiority and minority inferiority. Individuals in this status rationalize societal inequities by blaming marginalized groups for their own disadvantages, thereby protecting their self-esteem and cultural dominance. In contrast, Disintegration represents an initial awareness of racial inequality that induces severe emotional dissonance, guilt, and confusion without yet adopting an ideology of supremacy. Contact is the earliest status in the model, characterized by racial naivete, colorblind attitudes, and an obliviousness to white privilege and institutional oppression. Pseudo-Independence represents a later phase marked by an intellectualized attempt to understand racial differences and dismantle racism, though the individual may still inadvertently maintain subtle paternalistic assumptions rather than asserting overt group superiority. Therefore, adopting explicit beliefs of White superiority to resolve racial dissonance reflects Reintegration.

🔑 Key takeaway

In Helms' model, Reintegration resolves racial guilt by actively adopting beliefs of White superiority.

1,900+

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  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every EPPP question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

EPPP® is a registered mark of the Association of State and Provincial Psychology Boards (ASPPB). ASPPB does not sponsor or endorse LexPort.

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What the full simulator adds

  • ✓Each explanation works through why the keyed answer holds and where the other choices go wrong, so the concept sticks for the next item
  • ✓None of the 1,923 is an ASPPB exam item; each one is filed under one of the eight Part 1 domains ASPPB uses for exams given in 2026 and 2027
  • ✓Ten tests of 175 questions and one of 173, timed at 198 minutes: the scored-item count at the real 225-item, 4 h 15 min pace. Ours leave out the 50 unscored items and always offer four choices, where real items have three or four
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