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CMSRN: Heart Failure

Heart failure is one of the most common med-surg diagnoses. These CMSRN questions cover assessment, medications, fluid and weight monitoring, and patient teaching, each with a full rationale.

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  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every CMSRN question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed August 2026.

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Test yourself: Heart Failure

Three CMSRN practice questions on heart failure — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 5,200+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A patient with heart failure has bilateral pitting edema and crackles in lung bases. Which diuretic combination is most appropriate?

▸ Why C is the answer

Combination of loop diuretic (furosemide) for acute volume overload plus potassium-sparing diuretic (spironolactone) for aldosterone blockade is most effective in heart failure. This combination prevents hypokalemia and provides synergistic diuresis.

Question 2

A nurse receives a mobile alert that a postoperative patient’s wearable device detects atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 132 bpm. The telemetry monitor shows normal sinus rhythm at 82 bpm. Which response integrates both technologies effectively?

▸ Why B is the answer

Discrepancies between wearable tech and hospital monitoring require hands-on validation. Option B follows clinical prioritization by assessing symptoms (e.g., palpitations) and checking pulse/telemetry leads, per AHA arrhythmia protocols. Option A ignores potential intermittent arrhythmia. Option C dismisses useful consumer-grade tech without evaluation. Option D escalates prematurely without assessment. The postoperative setting and sudden rate change demand nurse-led evaluation before intervention.

Question 3

A patient with heart failure and bilateral weakness falls during a nighttime bathroom visit. No injury occurs, but they report fatigue. Which follow-up action best targets prevention?

▸ Why B is the answer

The timing (nocturnal) and fatigue cue indicate preventable toileting-related risk. Scheduled toileting (B) directly reduces unsupervised attempts, aligning with CMSRN protocols for mobility-compromised patients. Urinalysis (A) might be considered but doesn't address the immediate functional deficit. Protein supplements (C) are unrelated to acute fatigue management. Cardiology consults (D) are for disease management, not fall-specific prevention. The intervention must address the environmental-behavioral pattern revealed by the fall circumstances.

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Question 1

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing cardiogenic shock post-MI?

  • A) A) Administer IV fluid bolus rapidly
  • B) B) Prepare for intra-aortic balloon pump insertion✓
  • C) C) Increase oxygen flow rate to maximum
  • D) D) Administer beta blockers to reduce workload
Show rationale

In cardiogenic shock, the heart cannot pump effectively. Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) helps augment cardiac output and reduce afterload. Fluid boluses can worsen pulmonary edema. Beta blockers would further decrease cardiac output. While oxygen is important, mechanical support is the priority.

Question 2

A patient with heart failure has a BNP level of 850 pg/mL. What does this indicate?

  • A) A) Normal heart function, no intervention needed
  • B) B) Mild heart failure, outpatient management appropriate
  • C) C) Significant heart failure requiring aggressive treatment✓
  • D) D) Lab error, repeat test needed
Show rationale

BNP (B-type Natriuretic Peptide) >400 pg/mL indicates heart failure. Levels >800 suggest significant heart failure requiring hospitalization and aggressive treatment. Normal BNP is <100 pg/mL. This elevation confirms decompensated heart failure.

Question 3

Which finding indicates digoxin toxicity?

  • A) A) Heart rate 88 bpm, clear vision
  • B) B) Yellow-green vision (xanthopsia), nausea, bradycardia✓
  • C) C) Tachycardia, hyperkalemia, confusion
  • D) D) Hypertension, headache, blurred vision
Show rationale

Classic signs of digoxin toxicity include visual disturbances (yellow-green halos), GI symptoms (nausea, vomiting), and cardiac effects (bradycardia, heart blocks, arrhythmias). Digoxin causes bradycardia, not tachycardia. Hypokalemia increases toxicity risk.

Question 4

A patient with heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. What lab value requires close monitoring?

  • A) A) Sodium
  • B) B) Calcium
  • C) C) Potassium✓
  • D) D) Magnesium
Show rationale

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can cause hyperkalemia. Potassium levels must be monitored closely, especially when combined with ACE inhibitors or ARBs (also increase potassium). Hold if K+ >5.0 mEq/L.

Question 5

What is the primary benefit of ACE inhibitors in heart failure management?

  • A) A) Increase heart rate to improve cardiac output
  • B) B) Reduce preload and afterload, improve remodeling✓
  • C) C) Increase contractility of the myocardium
  • D) D) Block aldosterone receptors
Show rationale

ACE inhibitors reduce preload (venous return) and afterload (arterial resistance), making it easier for the failing heart to pump. They also prevent harmful ventricular remodeling. They do not increase contractility or heart rate. Spironolactone blocks aldosterone.

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CMSRN · Exam Simulator

What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing cardiogenic shock post-MI?…

A) A) Administer IV fluid bolus rapidly
B) B) Prepare for intra-aortic balloon pump
C) C) Increase oxygen flow rate to maximum
D) D) Administer beta blockers to reduce wo
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