ZQLexPort

FNP Anxiety Management Practice Questions

Anxiety presents physically as often as emotionally, so the first task is ruling out what mimics it. These questions cover GAD-7 screening, distinguishing generalised anxiety from panic and social anxiety, first-line pharmacologic and behavioural therapy, and why benzodiazepines are rarely the answer in primary care.

3,000+

questions in the app

10+ yrs

exam-prep publishing

Free

on iOS & Android

Built to help you pass faster — by exam-prep publishers with 10+ years' experience

  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every FNP question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed September 2026.

Get the full FNP question bank — free

3,000+ practice questions with rationales on iOS

Test yourself: Anxiety Management

Three FNP practice questions on anxiety management — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 3,000+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A 45-year-old patient with moderate social anxiety disorder requests a referral for cognitive behavioral therapy. During the assessment, the patient states, "I just want a professional to fix my anxiety during our weekly meetings so I do not have to think about it at home." Which factor presents the most significant barrier to CBT success for this patient?

Why D is the answer

CBT is an active, structured therapy that heavily relies on homework assignments and skills practice outside of scheduled sessions. The patient's desire to avoid thinking about anxiety at home indicates a lack of readiness for this active participation. Option D correctly identifies this barrier. Option A and Option B are incorrect because CBT is highly effective for both chronic and moderate anxiety presentations. Option C is incorrect because weekly sessions are the standard frequency for CBT. The FNP must educate the patient on the collaborative nature of CBT before initiating the referral.

🔑 Key takeaway

CBT requires active patient participation and consistent homework practice outside of scheduled therapy sessions.

Question 2

During a 2-month well-child check, a mother with a history of generalized anxiety reports the baby is doing well. However, she feels disconnected from the infant and relies entirely on her partner for all diaper changes and soothing. Her EPDS score is 11. Which action is most appropriate?

Why C is the answer

A score of 11 on the EPDS indicates possible depression, but her profound detachment and avoidance of infant care highlight a significant maternal functional deficit. The FNP must explore her bonding and caretaking capacity to determine the severity of her impairment. Option A enables her avoidance behavior without addressing the underlying issue. Option B incorrectly minimizes a clear red flag for impaired maternal-infant attachment. Option D is inappropriate; benzodiazepines are not first-line for postpartum mood disorders and do not address the core functional and bonding deficits.

🔑 Key takeaway

Reports of infant disconnection and care avoidance necessitate a targeted maternal functional assessment.

Question 3

A 29-year-old female who is four months postpartum reports new-onset anxiety and palpitations. Labs reveal a TSH of 0.05 mIU/L and an elevated Free T4. She is currently breastfeeding.

Why A is the answer

This patient is experiencing the hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis, which is caused by the destructive release of preformed thyroid hormone. Symptomatic management with a beta-blocker like propranolol (which is safe in lactation) and close monitoring is the standard of care. Option B is incorrect because antithyroid drugs like propylthiouracil inhibit new hormone synthesis and are ineffective for destructive thyroiditis. Option C is contraindicated; radioactive iodine is absolutely contraindicated during lactation and is unnecessary for a transient condition. Option D ignores pathological thyrotoxicosis, which requires symptom management.

🔑 Key takeaway

The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis is managed symptomatically with beta-blockers rather than antithyroid medications.

Unlock all 3,030 FNP practice questions, including 20 full-length mock exams

Timed, scored, with progress tracking and every answer explained. Free to start.

Question 1

A 28-year-old patient has taken sertraline 200 mg daily for generalized anxiety disorder for ten weeks. The baseline GAD-7 score was 15, and today's GAD-7 score is 14. The patient denies any side effects but reports no meaningful relief from constant worry. Which intervention is most appropriate?

  • A) Maintain the current sertraline dose for four more weeks.
  • B) Add a daily benzodiazepine to the current sertraline regimen.
  • C) Cross-taper the sertraline to a different class of antidepressant.
  • D) Increase the sertraline dose beyond the standard maximum limit.

💡 Key Takeaway

Lack of GAD-7 improvement after an adequate trial at maximum dose requires switching medication classes.

Show rationale

A minimal change in the GAD-7 score after ten weeks at the maximum therapeutic dose indicates clear non-response. The most appropriate approach is to switch to a different medication class, such as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Maintaining the dose is ineffective since the trial duration is already adequate. Adding a daily benzodiazepine is not recommended for long-term anxiety management due to tolerance and dependence risks. Exceeding the maximum recommended dose of sertraline increases the risk of adverse effects without offering proven clinical benefit.

Question 2

A 28-year-old woman is being evaluated after twelve sessions of CBT for PTSD following a motor vehicle accident. She states she recently drove on the highway for the first time but still feels mild anxiety when passing trucks.

  • A) Recommend extending CBT to eliminate all driving-related anxiety.
  • B) Document successful reduction in avoidance and taper therapy.
  • C) Prescribe a daily benzodiazepine to manage residual anxiety.
  • D) Refer the patient for intensive inpatient psychiatric treatment.

💡 Key Takeaway

Successful CBT outcomes in PTSD are defined by functional improvement and reduced avoidance, not absolute anxiety elimination.

Show rationale

The primary goal of CBT in PTSD is to reduce avoidance behaviors and improve daily functioning, rather than completely eliminating all anxiety. Driving on the highway demonstrates functional improvement and successful exposure. Option B is correct because she is functioning well despite experiencing mild anxiety. Option A is incorrect because eliminating all anxiety is an unrealistic therapeutic goal. Option C is contraindicated because benzodiazepines can interfere with fear extinction during trauma therapy. Option D is incorrect because an inpatient referral is an inappropriate level of care for mild, manageable residual symptoms.

Question 3

An 82-year-old with end-stage COPD on hospice is prescribed liquid morphine 5 mg sublingually every 4 hours for severe breathlessness. The family reports he is breathing easier but sleeping more, with a respiratory rate of 10/min. He rouses easily to voice.

  • A) Continue the current morphine dose and monitor symptoms.
  • B) Decrease the morphine dose to prevent respiratory arrest.
  • C) Administer a low dose of naloxone for sedation.
  • D) Discontinue the morphine and initiate a benzodiazepine instead.

💡 Key Takeaway

Mild sedation and decreased respiratory rate are acceptable when evaluating opioid efficacy for terminal dyspnea.

Show rationale

In hospice care, mild sedation and a decreased respiratory rate are expected and acceptable side effects of morphine for dyspnea, provided the patient rouses easily. The plan of care is effective because his breathing is easier and he is comfortable. Decreasing the dose (B) risks returning his severe dyspnea. Administering naloxone (C) is contraindicated as it will precipitate withdrawal and severe distress. Switching to a benzodiazepine (D) is inappropriate because opioids remain the gold standard for dyspnea, and benzodiazepines do not treat the physiological sensation of breathlessness as effectively.

Question 4

After discussing a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer, the 68-year-old female appears calm but visibly overwhelmed. The FNP transitions to the Strategy and Summary phase. Which action is most appropriate at this time?

  • A) Ask the patient to explain her understanding of the new diagnosis.
  • B) Provide a printed list of all possible standard chemotherapy side effects.
  • C) Establish a clear, step-by-step plan for the upcoming oncology specialist referral.
  • D) Inquire if she wants to discuss her overall prognosis in detail.

💡 Key Takeaway

The Strategy and Summary step provides a clear, manageable plan to reduce patient anxiety and confusion.

Show rationale

The final step of the SPIKES protocol is Strategy and Summary, which involves outlining a clear plan for the future to reduce patient anxiety and confusion. Option C effectively establishes a tangible next step for the patient. Option A reverts to the Perception step, which is used at the beginning of the encounter. Option B overwhelms the patient with excessive information; during the strategy phase, information should be given in manageable chunks rather than exhaustive lists. Option D reverts to the Invitation step, which should have been clarified before the diagnosis was delivered.

Question 5

A 72-year-old male with well-controlled hypertension requests a PSA test because his friend was recently diagnosed. He has a life expectancy of eight years.

  • A) Order the PSA test to alleviate his health anxiety.
  • B) Perform a digital rectal exam instead of drawing PSA.
  • C) Explain that guidelines recommend against screening due to risks.
  • D) Refer him to urology for comprehensive prostate cancer evaluation.

💡 Key Takeaway

Routine prostate cancer screening is not recommended for men aged 70 and older due to competing mortality risks.

Show rationale

The USPSTF recommends against PSA-based screening for men 70 and older because the harms generally outweigh the benefits, especially for those with a limited life expectancy. Option C uses therapeutic communication to explain the guideline rationale regarding competing risks. Option A inappropriately orders a non-indicated test just to treat anxiety. Option B is incorrect as a digital rectal exam is not recommended for routine screening. Option D is an unnecessary referral that increases healthcare burden without clinical justification.

Question 6

A 42-year-old male with sleep maintenance insomnia is prescribed eszopiclone. He works early morning shifts. Which essential patient education must the nurse practitioner provide?

  • A) Take the medication immediately after a heavy dinner.
  • B) Limit time in bed to exactly six hours nightly.
  • C) Dedicate at least eight hours for a full sleep.
  • D) Expect a temporary increase in early morning awakenings.

💡 Key Takeaway

Patients taking eszopiclone must dedicate at least eight hours to sleep to prevent next-day psychomotor impairment.

Show rationale

Eszopiclone is a nonbenzodiazepine hypnotic with a relatively long half-life. Patients must be instructed to dedicate at least seven to eight hours of sleep time to prevent severe next-day psychomotor impairment and memory issues. Taking the medication after a heavy dinner delays its absorption and onset. Limiting sleep to six hours exacerbates morning impairment. The medication is designed to treat, not cause, early morning awakenings.

Question 7

A 22-year-old patient started fluoxetine 10 mg daily for severe anxiety two weeks ago. The initial GAD-7 score was 16, and today the GAD-7 score is 18. The patient reports feeling more restless and jittery since starting the medication but denies suicidal ideation. Which action is most appropriate?

  • A) Stop the fluoxetine and prescribe a daily benzodiazepine immediately.
  • B) Increase the fluoxetine dose to twenty milligrams for efficacy.
  • C) Switch the fluoxetine to a different serotonin reuptake inhibitor.
  • D) Reassure the patient and maintain the current fluoxetine dosage.

💡 Key Takeaway

Early transient worsening of anxiety after starting an SSRI is common and requires reassurance.

Show rationale

An initial increase in anxiety and jitteriness is a common activation syndrome seen two weeks after starting an activating medication like fluoxetine. Because this is a known transient effect and full efficacy takes four to six weeks, providing reassurance and maintaining the current dose is the best approach. Increasing the dose would likely worsen the jitteriness. Stopping or switching the medication prematurely prevents an adequate therapeutic trial and misinterprets a common early side effect as a true treatment failure.

Question 8

A forty-eight-year-old female has a 10-year ASCVD risk of 8.5% but is hesitant to initiate daily statin therapy. The nurse practitioner reviews her chart for risk-enhancing factors to help guide the shared decision-making process. Which finding would strongly favor initiating statin therapy?

  • A) A documented history of severe rheumatoid arthritis.
  • B) A documented history of recurrent migraine headaches.
  • C) A documented history of mild persistent asthma.
  • D) A documented history of generalized anxiety disorder.

💡 Key Takeaway

Chronic inflammatory conditions act as risk-enhancing factors that favor statin initiation in intermediate-risk patients.

Show rationale

For patients with an intermediate 10-year risk (7.5% to 19.9%) who are uncertain about statin therapy, clinicians should assess for risk-enhancing factors. Chronic inflammatory conditions like rheumatoid arthritis significantly accelerate atherogenesis and favor statin initiation. Option B is incorrect because while migraines with aura have some cardiovascular associations, they are not formal ASCVD risk-enhancing factors in the current lipid guidelines. Options C and D are incorrect as asthma and anxiety do not independently enhance atherosclerotic risk or alter the primary prevention decision pathway.

Question 9

A 34-year-old patient returns after taking escitalopram 10 mg daily for generalized anxiety disorder for eight weeks. The baseline GAD-7 score was 16, and today's GAD-7 score is 12. The patient tolerates the medication well but still struggles with daily worry. Which action is most appropriate?

  • A) Increase the escitalopram dosage to 20 mg daily.
  • B) Switch the medication to duloxetine 30 mg daily.
  • C) Maintain the current dose and reassess in four weeks.
  • D) Augment the current regimen with buspirone 10 mg daily.

💡 Key Takeaway

A partial GAD-7 reduction without remission warrants maximizing the current well-tolerated medication dose before switching.

Show rationale

At eight weeks, a drop from 16 to 12 indicates a partial response but the patient remains highly symptomatic. Because the patient tolerates the medication well, maximizing the current selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor dose is the preferred next step over switching or augmenting. Maintaining the current dose is incorrect because the patient has not reached remission after an adequate initial trial, so waiting longer without a change will likely leave them symptomatic. Switching to duloxetine or adding buspirone are secondary strategies reserved for when maximizing the primary agent fails or causes intolerable side effects.

Question 10

A 17-year-old female undergoing outpatient weight restoration for anorexia nervosa has gained 2 pounds this month but reports severe anxiety and body image distress after meals. What is the most appropriate evaluation of this progress?

  • A) The weight gain indicates a dangerous fluid volume shift
  • B) The physical plan is failing due to severe anxiety
  • C) The anxiety suggests the onset of a psychotic disorder
  • D) The distress is an expected phase of weight restoration

💡 Key Takeaway

Psychological distress often intensifies during early weight restoration and does not indicate treatment failure.

Show rationale

It is highly common for patients with anorexia nervosa to experience a temporary increase in psychological distress, anxiety, and body image distortion as they begin to gain weight. The brain's cognitive recovery often lags behind physical weight restoration. Therefore, Option D is the best evaluation; the distress is an expected hurdle, not a sign that the nutritional plan is failing as suggested in Option B. Option A is incorrect because a 2-pound gain over a month is a safe, appropriate outpatient rate, not a massive fluid shift. Option C misinterprets eating disorder-related anxiety as psychosis.

Get all 85 Anxiety Management questions in the app

You've seen a sample. Get the complete experience — a timed exam simulator, every rationale, and progress tracking that shows exactly what to study next.

You just practiced 10 Anxiety Management questions here — the app has 75+ more on Anxiety Management, plus the full 3,000+ FNP bank, timed mock exams, and offline study.

  • The complete Anxiety Management set — 75+ more questions
  • 3,000+ real FNP questions
  • Timed exam simulator — real conditions
  • Every answer explained + key takeaway
  • Tracks your weak topics
  • Works offline · Free to start

Get the full FNP question bank — free

3,000+ practice questions with rationales on iOS

FNP · Exam Simulator

A 28-year-old patient has taken sertraline 200 mg daily for generalized anxiety disorder for ten weeks. The ba…

A) Maintain the current sertraline dose for
B) Add a daily benzodiazepine to the curren
C) Cross-taper the sertraline to a differen
D) Increase the sertraline dose beyond the
Submit Answer