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FNP: Depression & Anxiety

Mental-health care is a growing part of primary practice and the FNP exam. These questions cover screening, first-line medications, and follow-up for depression and anxiety — each with a full rationale.

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  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every FNP question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed August 2026.

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Test yourself: FNP: Depression & Anxiety

Three FNP practice questions on fnp: depression & anxiety — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 3,000+, timed and scored.

Question 1

126 of 150. An FNP is appraising a grounded theory study exploring maternal postpartum depression. To ensure the study's findings are trustworthy, the FNP looks for evidence that the authors took steps to mitigate the influence of personal researcher bias. Which methodological approach demonstrates this?

Why B is the answer

To establish confirmability, qualitative researchers use bracketing and reflexivity to consciously acknowledge and set aside their own preconceived notions, ensuring the findings genuinely reflect the participants' experiences rather than the researchers' assumptions. Option A is a quantitative sampling method that does not address internal bias. Option C addresses the breadth of the sample but does not control the researcher's subjective influence. Option D validates the findings with participants but does not actively manage the researcher's internal bias during the data collection phase.

🔑 Key takeaway

Bracketing and reflexivity are essential qualitative techniques used to mitigate personal researcher bias and establish confirmability.

Question 2

148 of 150. A 35-year-old female presents with an acute severe anxiety exacerbation. She has a documented history of severe alcohol use disorder but is currently sober. She needs immediate symptom management while starting an SSRI. Which intervention is most appropriate?

Why D is the answer

Hydroxyzine is a histamine receptor antagonist that provides rapid, as-needed relief for acute anxiety symptoms without carrying any risk of physiological dependence, tolerance, or addiction. Alprazolam, lorazepam, and clonazepam are all benzodiazepines, which are strictly contraindicated for this patient due to her documented history of a severe substance use disorder. Prescribing a benzodiazepine to a patient with a history of alcohol abuse significantly increases the risk of cross-addiction and fatal central nervous system depression if a relapse occurs. Using a non-habit-forming bridging agent like hydroxyzine ensures the patient receives immediate symptom relief safely while waiting for a daily maintenance SSRI to reach full therapeutic efficacy.

🔑 Key takeaway

Hydroxyzine is a safe, non-habit-forming bridging agent for acute anxiety in patients with a history of substance use.

Question 3

74 of 150. A 20-year-old male is initiating citalopram for severe anxiety. He has no prior psychiatric history. The NP is establishing the monitoring plan for the first month of therapy. What must be explicitly included?

Why A is the answer

When initiating any SSRI like citalopram in a young adult under the age of twenty-four, the NP must adhere to the FDA black box warning regarding the potential for increased suicidal ideation and behavior during the first month of treatment. Option A is the correct plan, as establishing a strict monitoring schedule for worsening mood or emergent suicidality is a critical safety standard. Option B is incorrect because SSRIs do not cause physical dependence with severe withdrawal cravings like controlled substances do, though they can cause discontinuation syndrome if stopped abruptly. Option C describes the dietary monitoring required for monoamine oxidase inhibitors, not SSRIs. Option D outlines the metabolic monitoring parameters typically required when prescribing second-generation antipsychotics, which is completely unnecessary and inappropriate for a young adult starting a standard SSRI for anxiety.

🔑 Key takeaway

Young adults under twenty-four require close monitoring for emergent suicidality when initiating antidepressant therapy.

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Question 1

44 of 150. A 28-year-old patient has taken sertraline 200 mg daily for generalized anxiety disorder for ten weeks. The baseline GAD-7 score was 15, and today's GAD-7 score is 14. The patient denies any side effects but reports no meaningful relief from constant worry. Which intervention is most appropriate?

  • A) Maintain the current sertraline dose for four more weeks.
  • B) Add a daily benzodiazepine to the current sertraline regimen.
  • C) Cross-taper the sertraline to a different class of antidepressant.
  • D) Increase the sertraline dose beyond the standard maximum limit.

💡 Key Takeaway

Lack of GAD-7 improvement after an adequate trial at maximum dose requires switching medication classes.

Show rationale

A minimal change in the GAD-7 score after ten weeks at the maximum therapeutic dose indicates clear non-response. The most appropriate approach is to switch to a different medication class, such as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Maintaining the dose is ineffective since the trial duration is already adequate. Adding a daily benzodiazepine is not recommended for long-term anxiety management due to tolerance and dependence risks. Exceeding the maximum recommended dose of sertraline increases the risk of adverse effects without offering proven clinical benefit.

Question 2

54 of 150. A 28-year-old woman is being evaluated after twelve sessions of CBT for PTSD following a motor vehicle accident. She states she recently drove on the highway for the first time but still feels mild anxiety when passing trucks.

  • A) Recommend extending CBT to eliminate all driving-related anxiety.
  • B) Document successful reduction in avoidance and taper therapy.
  • C) Prescribe a daily benzodiazepine to manage residual anxiety.
  • D) Refer the patient for intensive inpatient psychiatric treatment.

💡 Key Takeaway

Successful CBT outcomes in PTSD are defined by functional improvement and reduced avoidance, not absolute anxiety elimination.

Show rationale

The primary goal of CBT in PTSD is to reduce avoidance behaviors and improve daily functioning, rather than completely eliminating all anxiety. Driving on the highway demonstrates functional improvement and successful exposure. Option B is correct because she is functioning well despite experiencing mild anxiety. Option A is incorrect because eliminating all anxiety is an unrealistic therapeutic goal. Option C is contraindicated because benzodiazepines can interfere with fear extinction during trauma therapy. Option D is incorrect because an inpatient referral is an inappropriate level of care for mild, manageable residual symptoms.

Question 3

68 of 150. A 34-year-old female with newly diagnosed generalized anxiety disorder declines SSRI therapy and asks for non-pharmacologic options. She reports constant worry about her job performance despite receiving excellent evaluations. The FNP recommends a referral for cognitive behavioral therapy. How should the FNP explain the primary focus of this intervention?

  • A) It identifies and alters irrational thought patterns.
  • B) It explores unresolved childhood emotional conflicts.
  • C) It promotes radical acceptance of distressing emotions.
  • D) It utilizes bilateral stimulation to process memories.

💡 Key Takeaway

CBT focuses on restructuring the maladaptive thought patterns that directly fuel anxiety disorders.

Show rationale

CBT focuses on identifying and restructuring cognitive distortions that drive anxiety, such as this patient's irrational worry despite excellent evaluations. Option A accurately describes this mechanism. Option B describes psychodynamic therapy, which focuses on past conflicts rather than current behaviors. Option C describes dialectical behavior therapy, which emphasizes emotional regulation and distress tolerance. Option D describes eye movement desensitization and reprocessing, which is primarily used for trauma and PTSD. CBT is the first-line non-pharmacologic treatment for generalized anxiety disorder, making it essential for the FNP to explain its active, present-focused nature clearly.

Question 4

77 of 150. A 30-year-old patient with generalized anxiety disorder and a history of childhood trauma requests non-pharmacologic treatment. The patient specifically wants to focus on modifying current daily worry patterns rather than exploring past childhood events. Which referral is most appropriate for the FNP to initiate?

  • A) Standard cognitive behavioral therapy.
  • B) Eye movement desensitization reprocessing.
  • C) Long-term psychodynamic psychotherapy.
  • D) Dialectical behavior therapy training.

💡 Key Takeaway

Standard CBT is present-focused and targets current cognitive distortions rather than analyzing past trauma.

Show rationale

Standard CBT focuses on identifying and restructuring current cognitive distortions and behaviors that maintain daily anxiety, aligning perfectly with the patient's request to address current worry patterns without delving into past trauma. Option A is correct. Option B is primarily used to process specific traumatic memories, which the patient explicitly wishes to avoid. Option C focuses on uncovering unconscious conflicts from childhood, directly contradicting the patient's preference. Option D focuses on emotional regulation and distress tolerance, typically reserved for borderline personality disorder or severe self-harm, rather than standard generalized anxiety.

Question 5

108 of 150. A 19-year-old college student presents with severe anxiety regarding upcoming final exams. The student states, "If I fail this one biology test, I will never get into nursing school, and my entire life will be completely ruined." The FNP recognizes this thought pattern to support a cognitive behavioral therapy referral. Which specific cognitive distortion is this patient demonstrating?

  • A) Emotional reasoning regarding future events.
  • B) Personalization of uncontrollable environmental circumstances.
  • C) Catastrophizing about potential negative outcomes.
  • D) Overgeneralization from a single past event.

💡 Key Takeaway

Catastrophizing involves anticipating the worst possible outcome from a single event and is a primary target of CBT.

Show rationale

The patient is demonstrating catastrophizing, a common cognitive distortion where an individual assumes the absolute worst possible outcome will occur from a single, manageable event. Option C is correct. Option A involves believing that because one feels a certain way, it must objectively be true. Option B involves taking personal blame for events entirely outside of one's control. Option D involves making broad conclusions based on a single past incident, whereas this patient is projecting a disastrous future. Identifying these maladaptive thought patterns helps the FNP justify the CBT referral.

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FNP · Exam Simulator

44 of 150. A 28-year-old patient has taken sertraline 200 mg daily for generalized anxiety disorder for ten we…

A) Maintain the current sertraline dose for
B) Add a daily benzodiazepine to the curren
C) Cross-taper the sertraline to a differen
D) Increase the sertraline dose beyond the
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