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FNP Headache and Migraine Practice Questions

Headache is common, and the whole skill is separating benign from dangerous. These questions cover distinguishing tension, migraine and cluster patterns, the red flags that demand imaging rather than treatment, abortive and preventive migraine therapy, and the triggers and lifestyle factors worth addressing.

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  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every FNP question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed September 2026.

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Test yourself: Headache and Migraine

Three FNP practice questions on headache and migraine — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 3,000+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A 5-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of fever, headache, and exudative pharyngitis. Examination reveals a finely papular erythematous rash with a sandpaper-like texture on the trunk that spares the perioral area. The tongue appears bright red with prominent papillae. Which diagnosis is most accurate?

Why C is the answer

This clinical picture is highly specific for scarlet fever, a manifestation of Group A streptococcal infection. The classic signs include exudative pharyngitis, a diffuse erythematous rash with a sandpaper texture, circumoral pallor, and a strawberry tongue. Kawasaki disease can present with a strawberry tongue and rash, but it requires at least five days of fever and includes other criteria like conjunctivitis and extremity changes, lacking the exudative pharyngitis. Infectious mononucleosis may cause pharyngitis and a rash, particularly if amoxicillin is given, but the rash is typically maculopapular rather than sandpaper-like. Rheumatic fever is a delayed, nonsuppurative complication of streptococcal pharyngitis that presents weeks later with erythema marginatum, polyarthritis, or carditis, rather than an acute scarlatiniform eruption during the active throat infection.

🔑 Key takeaway

Scarlet fever presents with pharyngitis, a sandpaper-like rash, circumoral pallor, and a strawberry tongue.

Question 2

A 16-year-old female soccer player sustained a concussion one week ago. She currently reports mild headaches when reading but is otherwise asymptomatic. She wants to resume soccer practice today and asks for clearance.

Why C is the answer

The correct answer is C. Current concussion management guidelines mandate that an athlete must be completely symptom-free at rest and without the use of symptom-masking medications before beginning a graduated return-to-play protocol. Because this athlete still experiences headaches with cognitive exertion, she is not ready for physical clearance. Option A is incorrect because initiating non-contact drills while the patient is still symptomatic violates established safety protocols and risks secondary injury. Option B is incorrect because prescribing NSAIDs masks the symptoms, and clearance should never be granted while a patient requires medication for concussion-related pain. Option D is incorrect because a head CT scan is indicated for acute structural injuries, such as intracranial hemorrhage, rather than for determining readiness for sports clearance in a recovering concussion.

🔑 Key takeaway

Concussed athletes must be completely symptom-free at rest and without medication before beginning return-to-play protocols.

Question 3

A 3-year-old child who recently immigrated from Southeast Asia presents to the clinic to establish care. The parents report they uses traditional remedies for teething. What is the most appropriate action?

Why B is the answer

Children who are recent immigrants or refugees are at a significantly higher risk for lead exposure, particularly when exposed to traditional folk remedies or imported cosmetics. Because this child missed the standard early childhood screening windows and has clear risk factors, immediate screening is indicated. Option B is correct because a venous blood lead level accurately quantifies potential exposure. Option A is incorrect because this patient has multiple high-risk indicators requiring evaluation. Option C is incorrect; while developmental monitoring is important, it should not delay the necessary toxicological screening. Option D is incorrect because simply stopping the remedy ignores the potential existing lead burden that requires quantification and targeted management.

🔑 Key takeaway

Immigrant and refugee children with exposure to folk remedies require targeted lead screening.

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Question 1

21 of 150. A patient who recently recovered from a severe systemic infection offers the FNP a five-hundred-dollar gift card to a luxury restaurant as a token of deep gratitude.

  • A) Accept the gift card and document it in records.
  • B) Decline the gift card while expressing gratitude for thought.
  • C) Donate the gift card to the staff appreciation fund.
  • D) Accept the gift card but share it with nurses.

💡 Key Takeaway

FNPs must decline high-value gifts from patients to maintain professional boundaries and avoid dual relationships.

Show rationale

Accepting gifts of significant monetary value from patients crosses professional boundaries and can create a sense of obligation or alter the therapeutic dynamic. The FNP should politely decline the gift while acknowledging the patient's gratitude. Option A violates ethical guidelines regarding financial boundaries and dual relationships, regardless of documentation. Option C, while seemingly altruistic, still involves accepting a high-value gift from a patient, which remains ethically problematic. Option D also violates the boundary by accepting the high-value item, regardless of who ultimately uses it within the clinic. Option B maintains professional boundaries while preserving the therapeutic relationship.

Question 2

50 of 150. A 35-year-old female describes a bilateral pressing band-like pain that is associated with mild photophobia without nausea and is not worsened by walking around her neighborhood.

  • A) Migraine with typical aura
  • B) Medication overuse headache
  • C) Frequent tension-type headache
  • D) Cervicogenic headache disorder

💡 Key Takeaway

Tension headaches cause bilateral, non-pulsating pain that is not worsened by routine physical activity.

Show rationale

Tension-type headaches present with bilateral, non-pulsating, band-like pain that is not aggravated by routine physical activity. They may feature mild photophobia or phonophobia, but never both, and they lack nausea. Migraines are unilateral, pulsating, and are worsened by routine activity. Medication overuse requires a specific history of frequent analgesic use over months. Cervicogenic headaches typically involve unilateral neck pain that is triggered by specific neck movements or sustained postures.

Question 3

105 of 150. A 24-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of blood pressure at 172/105 mmHg. She has no family history of hypertension and a normal body mass index. Physical examination reveals a distinct right-sided periumbilical bruit. Her basic metabolic panel is entirely within normal limits. Which condition is the most likely etiology?

  • A) Primary adrenal hyperaldosteronism
  • B) Fibromuscular arterial dysplasia
  • C) Adrenal medullary pheochromocytoma
  • D) Aortic arch coarctation

💡 Key Takeaway

Sudden severe hypertension and an abdominal bruit in a young female indicate fibromuscular dysplasia.

Show rationale

The sudden onset of severe hypertension in a young, healthy female without risk factors strongly points toward a secondary cause. The presence of a periumbilical bruit is a highly specific physical exam finding for renovascular hypertension, which in this demographic is most commonly caused by fibromuscular arterial dysplasia. Primary adrenal hyperaldosteronism typically presents with hypokalemia and muscle weakness rather than a localized abdominal bruit. Adrenal medullary pheochromocytoma would cause paroxysmal blood pressure spikes accompanied by a classic triad of severe headaches, palpitations, and diaphoresis. Aortic arch coarctation would present with diminished or delayed femoral pulses and a significant blood pressure discrepancy between the upper and lower extremities, not an isolated abdominal bruit.

Question 4

18 of 150. 74-year-old man reports acute onset of neck, shoulder, and pelvic pain accompanied by morning stiffness lasting two hours. He denies headache or visual changes. Which laboratory pattern most strongly supports establishing the primary diagnosis?

  • A) Elevated creatine kinase and normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  • B) Positive rheumatoid factor and elevated C-reactive protein level
  • C) Positive antinuclear antibody and normal C-reactive protein level
  • D) Elevated C-reactive protein and normal creatine kinase level

💡 Key Takeaway

Polymyalgia rheumatica is characterized by elevated inflammatory markers with normal muscle enzymes.

Show rationale

To diagnose polymyalgia rheumatica, clinicians look for evidence of systemic inflammation without actual muscle tissue destruction. Therefore, an elevated C-reactive protein or erythrocyte sedimentation rate paired with normal muscle enzymes like creatine kinase is the expected laboratory pattern. Elevated creatine kinase with a normal ESR would point toward a myopathy such as polymyositis or statin-induced myotoxicity, not polymyalgia rheumatica. A positive rheumatoid factor with an elevated CRP would suggest rheumatoid arthritis, which is a key differential but less likely given the classic proximal girdle presentation without small joint involvement. A positive antinuclear antibody with a normal CRP might suggest systemic lupus erythematosus, but lupus typically presents in younger females and lacks the isolated severe proximal stiffness seen in this older male patient.

Question 5

51 of 150. A 75-year-old female is currently taking prednisone 5 mg daily for polymyalgia rheumatica. She presents to the clinic reporting a new-onset right-sided temporal headache and severe jaw pain when chewing food.

  • A) Increase the prednisone dose to 10 mg daily.
  • B) Order an urgent magnetic resonance imaging scan.
  • C) Increase the prednisone dose to 60 mg daily.
  • D) Order a routine temporal artery ultrasound scan.

💡 Key Takeaway

Suspected giant cell arteritis during a polymyalgia rheumatica taper requires immediate high-dose corticosteroids to prevent blindness.

Show rationale

The development of a new temporal headache and jaw claudication during a polymyalgia rheumatica taper strongly suggests giant cell arteritis. This is a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment with high-dose corticosteroids, typically 40 to 60 mg of prednisone daily, to prevent irreversible vision loss. Increasing the dose to 10 mg is appropriate for a simple disease flare but is completely inadequate for giant cell arteritis. While imaging or a biopsy will eventually be needed to confirm the diagnosis, you should never delay the initiation of high-dose steroids to wait for an MRI or ultrasound.

Question 6

97 of 150. A 22-year-old male describes recurrent headaches characterized by pressing, non-pulsating pain of moderate intensity. He denies nausea but notes that loud noises bother him during episodes. Which subjective finding would exclude a diagnosis of tension-type headache and point toward migraine?

  • A) He also experiences severe sensitivity to bright room lights.
  • B) He reports the pain radiates to his posterior neck.
  • C) He states the headache episodes last for four hours.
  • D) He feels mild fatigue after the headache completely resolves.

💡 Key Takeaway

Tension-type headaches may feature either photophobia or phonophobia, but the presence of both points toward a migraine diagnosis.

Show rationale

The diagnostic criteria for tension-type headaches allow for either mild photophobia or mild phonophobia, but explicitly state that a patient cannot have both. If a patient experiences both photophobia and phonophobia, the diagnosis shifts toward migraine. Option B is incorrect because tension headaches frequently involve pericranial muscle tenderness and radiation to the posterior neck. Option C is incorrect as both tension headaches and migraines can easily last for four hours. Option D describes a postdrome phase of fatigue, which is common in migraines but can also be reported by patients recovering from a prolonged tension-type headache.

Question 7

100 of 150. A 24-year-old patient started taking melatonin 5 mg nightly for sleep onset insomnia. He returns to the clinic reporting new-onset disturbing nighttime symptoms since starting the supplement. Which explanation should the nurse practitioner provide?

  • A) Reassure him that sleepwalking is a harmless and temporary side effect.
  • B) Explain that severe morning headache indicates a dangerous allergic drug reaction.
  • C) Advise that vivid dreams or nightmares are common dose-dependent side effects.
  • D) Warn that sleep paralysis frequently occurs during the first treatment week.

💡 Key Takeaway

Higher doses of melatonin can alter REM sleep architecture, frequently causing vivid dreams or nightmares in young adults.

Show rationale

Melatonin is generally safe, but higher doses frequently cause vivid dreams or nightmares due to alterations in REM sleep architecture. Option A is incorrect because sleepwalking is not a typical side effect of melatonin, though it happens with prescription Z-drugs. Option B is wrong as morning headaches can occasionally occur but do not indicate a dangerous allergic reaction. Option D is incorrect because sleep paralysis is not a recognized common side effect of melatonin therapy and would warrant further neurological evaluation.

Question 8

110 of 150. A 70-year-old man presents with paroxysmal, stabbing pain across his right cheek. The episodes last for a few seconds and happen when he speaks. His C-reactive protein level is within normal limits. Which diagnosis is most accurate?

  • A) Giant cell arteritis
  • B) Classic trigeminal neuralgia
  • C) Temporomandibular joint disorder
  • D) Acute maxillary sinusitis

💡 Key Takeaway

Stabbing cheek pain triggered by speaking without systemic inflammation is highly characteristic of trigeminal neuralgia.

Show rationale

The patient is experiencing brief, paroxysmal, stabbing pain triggered by the movement of speaking, which strongly points to classic trigeminal neuralgia affecting the maxillary branch. The normal C-reactive protein level helps rule out systemic inflammatory conditions. Giant cell arteritis typically presents with a continuous temporal headache, potential visual changes, and elevated inflammatory markers like C-reactive protein. Temporomandibular joint disorder involves a dull, aching pain localized to the joint space that worsens with prolonged chewing, rather than stabbing superficial pain. Acute maxillary sinusitis causes a continuous, dull, pressure-like pain over the cheek that worsens when bending forward, often accompanied by purulent nasal discharge, which is absent here.

Question 9

120 of 150. A 74-year-old male presents with sudden right arm weakness and aphasia that resolved entirely after 20 minutes. He has a history of type 2 diabetes on insulin. His capillary blood glucose at symptom onset was 42 mg/dL.

  • A) Hypoglycemic focal deficit
  • B) Transient ischemic attack
  • C) Focal aware seizure
  • D) Hemiplegic migraine aura

💡 Key Takeaway

Severe hypoglycemia can mimic transient ischemic attacks by presenting with reversible focal neurological deficits.

Show rationale

The patient's presentation strongly suggests a hypoglycemic mimic of a TIA. While sudden unilateral weakness and aphasia are classic for a TIA, the documented blood glucose of 42 mg/dL at onset points to neuroglycopenia, which can cause reversible focal deficits. A transient ischemic attack is less likely given the profound hypoglycemia that perfectly aligns with symptom timing. A focal aware seizure typically presents with positive motor symptoms like jerking rather than isolated weakness. A hemiplegic migraine aura usually features a gradual progression of symptoms and is often followed by a headache, making it an unlikely cause for this sudden, brief presentation in an older adult.

Question 10

143 of 150. A 72-year-old female presents with a new-onset right-sided headache and jaw pain when chewing. Laboratory results reveal an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 85 mm/hr. Which interprofessional plan is most appropriate for this patient?

  • A) Prescribe high-dose prednisone and refer to rheumatology immediately.
  • B) Order temporal artery biopsy and await results before treating.
  • C) Prescribe high-dose ibuprofen and refer to neurology immediately.
  • D) Order an urgent head computed tomography and monitor closely.

💡 Key Takeaway

Suspected giant cell arteritis requires immediate systemic corticosteroids and an urgent rheumatology referral.

Show rationale

This patient's presentation is highly suspicious for giant cell arteritis, a medical emergency that can lead to irreversible vision loss. The standard of care is to immediately initiate high-dose corticosteroids and initiate an urgent rheumatology referral to coordinate a temporal artery biopsy and manage long-term care. Option B is incorrect because treatment must never be delayed while awaiting a biopsy. Option C is incorrect because NSAIDs are insufficient to prevent ischemic complications. Option D is incorrect because a CT scan does not diagnose this condition and delays necessary treatment.

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FNP · Exam Simulator

21 of 150. A patient who recently recovered from a severe systemic infection offers the FNP a five-hundred-dol…

A) Accept the gift card and document it in
B) Decline the gift card while expressing g
C) Donate the gift card to the staff apprec
D) Accept the gift card but share it with n
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