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FNP Scope of Practice by State

What a family nurse practitioner can do independently depends heavily on the state. States fall into three broad categories — full, reduced, and restricted practice — that determine whether you need physician involvement to diagnose, treat, and prescribe.

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Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed August 2026.

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What are the three practice-authority levels?
Full practice: FNPs can evaluate, diagnose, order tests, and prescribe independently. Reduced practice: a collaborative agreement with a physician is required for at least one element of practice. Restricted practice: ongoing physician supervision or delegation is required.
How do I find my state’s rules?
Practice authority is set by each state board of nursing and does change over time. Check your state board of nursing for the current rule before you plan where to practice.
Does the certification exam differ by state?
No. The AANP FNP-C and ANCC FNP-BC exams are national and identical everywhere. Only the scope you are allowed to practice under afterward varies by state.

Test yourself: 3 FNP practice questions

Tap an answer for instant feedback and the full rationale. The app has 3,000+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A 74-year-old male patient presents for an annual wellness visit. His family reports he occasionally forgets the names of new acquaintances but remembers them later. He independently manages his own finances and medications without error. On exam, he recalls two out of three words spontaneously, and gets the third with a category cue.

▸ Why A is the answer

Normal age-related cognitive decline involves occasional memory lapses, such as forgetting names but remembering them later, and fully preserved instrumental activities of daily living like managing finances and medications. The ability to recall information with a cue indicates intact encoding, which is typical of normal aging rather than dementia. Reassurance is the most appropriate action. Option B is unnecessary because there are no functional red flags for dementia. Option C is inappropriate as cholinesterase inhibitors are indicated for Alzheimer disease, not normal aging. Option D is unwarranted without focal neurologic deficits, sudden onset, or signs of pathological decline.

🔑 Key takeaway

Preserved independent instrumental activities of daily living and cue-responsive recall indicate normal age-related cognitive decline.

Question 2

A 45-year-old female with type 2 diabetes has an LDL cholesterol of 115 mg/dL. She has no history of cardiovascular disease and her blood pressure is normal. How should the nurse practitioner manage her lipid profile?

▸ Why A is the answer

The ADA guidelines recommend that all patients aged 40 to 75 years with diabetes and no established ASCVD should be prescribed a moderate-intensity statin for primary prevention, regardless of their baseline lipid levels. Prescribe a moderate-intensity statin for primary prevention is the correct plan because it aligns directly with this age and risk profile. Prescribe a high-intensity statin for secondary prevention is incorrect because she has no history of cardiovascular events or multiple high-risk ASCVD indicators. Recommend strict dietary changes before starting statin therapy delays necessary evidence-based pharmacologic intervention that is universally indicated for her demographic. Recommend adding a daily fibrate for primary prevention is inappropriate because fibrates do not provide the proven cardiovascular mortality benefits that statins offer in diabetic populations.

🔑 Key takeaway

Moderate-intensity statin therapy is recommended for primary prevention in diabetic patients aged 40 to 75.

Question 3

A 62-year-old male with type 2 diabetes started basal insulin glargine 10 units daily two weeks ago. He continues metformin. His target fasting blood glucose is 80-130 mg/dL. His fasting glucose logs for the past three days are 158, 162, and 160 mg/dL. He reports no hypoglycemic episodes. Which action is most appropriate?

▸ Why C is the answer

When titrating basal insulin, standard guidelines advise increasing the dose by 2 units every 3 days until the patient reaches their individualized fasting blood glucose target without experiencing hypoglycemia. Option C is correct because it applies this safe and systematic titration schedule. Option A is incorrect because a 4-unit increase is generally too aggressive for routine outpatient titration and increases the risk of sudden hypoglycemia. Option B is incorrect because clinical inertia leaves the patient exposed to ongoing hyperglycemia; timely and frequent titration is essential for success. Option D is incorrect because prandial insulin should only be considered after fasting targets are met or if the basal dose exceeds 0.5 units/kg/day.

🔑 Key takeaway

Titrate basal insulin by 2 units every 3 days until the fasting blood glucose target is achieved.

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