Question 1
A 52-year-old female with an intact uterus reports experiencing severe vasomotor symptoms that disrupt her sleep nightly. Her last menstrual period was 14 months ago and she desires hormone replacement. Which intervention is most appropriate?
▸ Why B is the answer
Estrogen alone in a patient with an intact uterus significantly increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and cancer. Therefore, a progestin must be added to systemic estrogen therapy. Option A is incorrect because unopposed estrogen is contraindicated. Option C is incorrect because vaginal estrogen only treats genitourinary symptoms, not the severe vasomotor symptoms described. Option D is a non-hormonal alternative, which is not the first-line choice when the patient desires and has no absolute contraindications to hormone replacement therapy.
🔑 Key takeaway
Women with an intact uterus require combined estrogen and progestin therapy to prevent endometrial hyperplasia.
