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FNP: COPD & Asthma

Obstructive lung disease is a high-yield FNP topic. These questions cover distinguishing COPD from asthma, inhaler therapy, exacerbations, and education, each with a full rationale.

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  • 💡 Key Takeaways — the one transferable rule per question
  • 🔍 Hint highlights — the decisive cue phrases in each stem
  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

Every FNP question is written to the current exam outline for quick learning and a clear pass strategy.

Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed August 2026.

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Test yourself: FNP: COPD & Asthma

Three FNP practice questions on fnp: copd & asthma — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 3,000+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A healthy 15-year-old adolescent presents for a sports physical. The patient has never received the human papillomavirus vaccine. How should the APRN counsel the family regarding this specific vaccine series?

▸ Why C is the answer

The human papillomavirus vaccine series requires three distinct doses when initiated at age 15 or older, typically administered at 0, 1 to 2, and 6 months. A two-dose series spaced six months apart is only indicated if the series is initiated before the patient's 15th birthday. Since this patient is already 15, the two-dose options are insufficient for optimal immunogenicity. The three-dose schedule must be spread over six months, making a two-month completion timeline incorrect and ineffective for primary prevention.

🔑 Key takeaway

Initiating the HPV vaccine at age 15 or older requires a three-dose series over six months.

Question 2

A healthy 16-year-old adolescent presents for a wellness exam. A review of the immunization registry reveals the patient has never received a meningococcal conjugate vaccine. What is the correct administration plan?

▸ Why A is the answer

The routine meningococcal conjugate series typically involves a primary dose at age 11 or 12 and a booster at age 16. However, if the first dose is administered at age 16 or older, a subsequent booster dose is not required. Scheduling a booster at age 18 or in six months is unnecessary and deviates from catch-up guidelines. Administering it without other routine vaccines is incorrect, as co-administration with other needed catch-up vaccines is generally safe and recommended.

🔑 Key takeaway

A first dose of the MenACWY vaccine given at age 16 or older does not require a booster.

Question 3

A family nurse practitioner receives a subpoena signed only by an attorney representing a patient's former employer, requesting the complete medical record for an ongoing civil lawsuit. Which action should the nurse practitioner take to remain compliant with HIPAA?

▸ Why C is the answer

When a provider receives a subpoena signed only by an attorney, HIPAA requires specific conditions to be met before releasing protected health information. The provider must obtain either a valid patient authorization, a court order signed by a judge, or satisfactory assurances that the patient was notified of the request. Option C is the correct action because it strictly adheres to these legal privacy requirements. Option A is incorrect because sending the complete medical record based solely on an attorney's subpoena violates HIPAA privacy rules. Option B is incorrect because a provider cannot simply ignore a legal subpoena; they must respond appropriately by requesting the necessary authorization or court documentation. Option D is incorrect because redacting the record does not satisfy the legal requirement for explicit authorization or a formal judicial order prior to disclosure.

🔑 Key takeaway

An attorney-issued subpoena requires patient authorization or a court order before disclosing protected health information.

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Question 1

A 16-week-old infant presents for a well-child visit. The parents recently immigrated and the infant has no documented prior immunizations. The APRN plans a catch-up schedule. Which vaccine is contraindicated for initiation today?

  • A) Rotavirus (RV) vaccine series✓
  • B) Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) series
  • C) Pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) series
  • D) Diphtheria tetanus (DTaP) series

💡 Key Takeaway

The rotavirus vaccine series cannot be initiated in infants who are 15 weeks of age or older.

Show rationale

The maximum age for the first dose of the rotavirus vaccine is 14 weeks and 6 days. Because this infant is 16 weeks old, the series cannot be safely initiated due to the increased risk of intussusception. The Haemophilus influenzae type b, pneumococcal conjugate, and DTaP vaccines are all indicated and safe to initiate at this age according to the CDC catch-up schedule. Initiating rotavirus now is contraindicated, making it the only vaccine among these options that must be excluded from today's primary prevention plan.

Question 2

A 78-year-old with recurrent heart failure exacerbations presents for a follow-up visit. The patient understands the risks of refusal but explicitly declines to follow a low-sodium diet or perform daily weights, stating they prefer to enjoy their meals. The patient is competent to make decisions. How should the nurse practitioner evaluate and manage this outcome?

  • A) Document the informed refusal and explore alternative harm reduction strategies.✓
  • B) Involve the ethics committee to override refusal for the patient's safety.
  • C) Contact the patient's adult children to enforce the recommended dietary plan.
  • D) Discharge the patient from the practice due to persistent medical nonadherence.

💡 Key Takeaway

Competent adults have the right to refuse care even if it leads to suboptimal clinical outcomes.

Show rationale

The nurse practitioner must balance patient autonomy with beneficence. A competent adult has the right to refuse treatment, even if it leads to poor outcomes like recurrent admissions. Option A respects this right while maintaining clinical beneficence through harm reduction. Option B inappropriately attempts to override a competent patient's decision. Option C violates confidentiality and autonomy by involving family without permission. Option D violates nonmaleficence by abandoning the patient.

Question 3

A 16-year-old unemancipated minor presents to the clinic requesting oral contraceptive refill and STI screening. The next day, the patient's mother calls the clinic demanding to know the results of the laboratory tests. Which action should the family nurse practitioner take?

  • A) Deny the mother access without the minor's explicit written consent.✓
  • B) Release the records because the patient is an unemancipated minor.
  • C) Disclose the STI results but withhold the oral contraceptive data.
  • D) Require the mother to obtain a court order for the records.

💡 Key Takeaway

Minors who consent to specific sensitive treatments legally control the disclosure of those corresponding medical records.

Show rationale

Under HIPAA, when a minor has the legal right to consent to a specific healthcare service, such as reproductive health or STI treatment, the minor also holds the right to control the disclosure of those medical records. Because this 16-year-old unemancipated minor consented to her own care, the provider must deny the mother access unless the minor provides explicit written authorization. Option B is incorrect because unemancipated status does not override the minor's privacy rights for these specific sensitive services. Option C is inappropriate because both STI and contraceptive records are protected under the same minor consent laws. Option D is incorrect because a court order is not the standard first step; the primary requirement is simply the minor's explicit consent to release the protected health information.

Question 4

An 82-year-old patient with unexplained bilateral bruising is brought to the clinic by their son. The son answers all questions and refuses to leave the room, leading the family nurse practitioner to suspect elder abuse by the primary caregiver. Which action is most appropriate?

  • A) Obtain the patient's written consent before notifying adult protective services.
  • B) Report the suspected abuse to the appropriate state agency immediately.✓
  • C) Discuss the bruising with the son to determine the exact cause.
  • D) Document the findings and monitor the bruising at the next visit.

💡 Key Takeaway

HIPAA regulations permit the disclosure of protected health information without consent for mandatory abuse reporting.

Show rationale

HIPAA regulations include specific exemptions that allow providers to disclose protected health information without patient authorization when reporting suspected elder abuse to appropriate government authorities. In cases involving an 82-year-old patient with signs of abuse, mandatory reporting laws supersede standard privacy protections. Option B is the best action because the provider has a legal obligation to report these findings immediately to adult protective services. Option A is incorrect because waiting for written consent could endanger the patient and violates mandatory reporting statutes. Option C is unsafe and inappropriate, as confronting the suspected abuser could escalate the violence or lead to retaliation against the vulnerable patient. Option D is incorrect because merely documenting the findings fails to fulfill the provider's legal and ethical duty to intervene and protect the patient from ongoing harm.

Question 5

A six-month-old infant presents for a well-child check. When the FNP turns the infant's head to the right, the infant extends the right arm and leg while flexing the left extremities. Which action is most appropriate?

  • A) Document this as expected normal developmental progress.
  • B) Refer for a comprehensive pediatric neurologic evaluation.✓
  • C) Reassure the parents this resolves by nine-months.
  • D) Assess for an acute right clavicular fracture.

💡 Key Takeaway

Persistence of the asymmetric tonic neck reflex beyond four months requires neurologic evaluation.

Show rationale

The asymmetric tonic neck reflex typically disappears by three to four months of age; its persistence at six months strongly suggests upper motor neuron pathology or cerebral palsy, requiring a neurologic evaluation. It is not an expected developmental finding and will not simply resolve by nine months. An acute clavicular fracture would present with an absent Moro reflex, not a persistent fencing posture.

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FNP · Exam Simulator

A 16-week-old infant presents for a well-child visit. The parents recently immigrated and the infant has no do…

A) Rotavirus (RV) vaccine series
B) Haemophilus influenzae (Hib) series
C) Pneumococcal conjugate (PCV) series
D) Diphtheria tetanus (DTaP) series
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