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FNP GERD and Peptic Ulcer Practice Questions

Reflux is usually straightforward until an alarm symptom appears. These questions cover diagnosing and managing GERD, the features that require endoscopy rather than another trial of therapy, appropriate PPI use and de-escalation, H. pylori testing and treatment, and the lifestyle changes that genuinely help.

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  • 📖 Full rationales — why every option is right or wrong

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Written and reviewed by the LexPort exam-prep team, led by our Founder & Exam-Prep Lead. LexPort builds certification practice questions — this is exam-preparation material, not medical advice. Last reviewed September 2026.

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Test yourself: GERD and Peptic Ulcer Disease

Three FNP practice questions on gerd and peptic ulcer disease — tap an answer for instant feedback. The app has 3,000+, timed and scored.

Question 1

A 62-year-old patient with a recent coronary stent placement on clopidogrel is newly diagnosed with severe GERD requiring daily medical therapy. Which action is most appropriate when selecting a proton pump inhibitor?

Why C is the answer

Clopidogrel is a prodrug that requires activation by the CYP2C19 enzyme to exert its antiplatelet effects. Omeprazole and esomeprazole are strong CYP2C19 inhibitors that block this activation, decreasing clopidogrel's efficacy and increasing the risk of stent thrombosis and adverse cardiovascular events (Options A and B). Cimetidine is also a known enzyme inhibitor that can interfere with clopidogrel metabolism (Option D). Pantoprazole does not significantly inhibit the CYP2C19 pathway and is considered the safest proton pump inhibitor for patients requiring dual antiplatelet therapy (Option C). Choosing an alternative acid suppressant ensures the patient receives necessary gastrointestinal protection without compromising the efficacy of their critical cardiovascular medication.

🔑 Key takeaway

Pantoprazole does not significantly inhibit CYP2C19, making it safe for patients taking clopidogrel.

Question 2

An 88-year-old patient is being treated for a Stage 3 trochanteric ulcer. The wound bed is currently filled with beefy red tissue, and the wound margins are visibly contracting compared to last week.

Why D is the answer

The presence of beefy red granulation tissue and contracting margins demonstrates that the current plan of care is highly effective and the wound is progressing through the proliferative phase of healing. Maintaining the current moist wound healing environment is the best action. Sharp debridement (Option A) is contraindicated as it would destroy healthy, newly formed tissue. Swabbing for colonization (Option B) is unnecessary because all chronic wounds are colonized, and there are no signs of active infection here. Tightly packing with dry gauze (Option C) impairs healing by causing tissue desiccation and mechanical trauma.

🔑 Key takeaway

Beefy red granulation tissue and contracting margins indicate effective healing, warranting continuation of the current care plan.

Question 3

An 84-year-old nursing home resident has a chronic unstageable sacral ulcer. The patient has no fever or localized erythema but developed sudden acute confusion and lethargy over the past twenty-four hours.

Why A is the answer

Older adults frequently exhibit an atypical immune response, meaning severe infections like sepsis can present as acute delirium, lethargy, or functional decline without a classic fever or robust localized inflammation. Prompt evaluation for systemic infection is critical. Increasing routine dressing changes (Option B) ignores the acute, potentially life-threatening systemic changes. Attributing sudden confusion to dementia (Option C) is a dangerous assumption; sudden cognitive changes always warrant an acute medical workup. Applying an enzymatic debriding agent (Option D) addresses the local wound bed but fails to address the immediate systemic emergency.

🔑 Key takeaway

Older adults often present with atypical signs of systemic infection, such as acute delirium, without mounting a fever.

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Question 1

3 of 150. A 60-year-old overweight female presents with a chronic dry cough that has persisted for 4 months. She reports occasional hoarseness and sour taste in her mouth, particularly in the morning. She does not smoke and takes no daily medications. Her lung fields are clear to auscultation. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention?

  • A) Prescribe a daily oral antihistamine and decongestant.
  • B) Initiate a trial of inhaled corticosteroid therapy.
  • C) Order comprehensive environmental allergy skin prick testing.
  • D) Recommend an empiric daily proton pump inhibitor.

💡 Key Takeaway

GERD frequently causes chronic cough and is evaluated through an empiric trial of acid suppression.

Show rationale

This patient's presentation strongly suggests gastroesophageal reflux disease, which is a leading cause of chronic cough even in the absence of classic heartburn. The presence of morning hoarseness and a sour taste are classic extraesophageal manifestations that warrant an empiric trial of a proton pump inhibitor. Option A is incorrect because antihistamine-decongestants target upper airway cough syndrome, which lacks supporting physical findings here. Option B is incorrect as inhaled corticosteroids treat asthma, but the patient's symptoms align more closely with acid reflux. Option C is premature and inappropriate without a clear history of allergic triggers. An empiric trial of acid suppression for at least eight weeks serves as both a diagnostic tool and a therapeutic intervention, safely addressing the underlying pathology while avoiding immediate invasive procedures like endoscopy.

Question 2

20 of 150. A 45-year-old female has been taking omeprazole forty milligrams daily for eight weeks for erosive esophagitis. Her symptoms are fully resolved, and she asks the nurse practitioner how to discontinue the medication. Which instruction is most appropriate?

  • A) Stop the medication abruptly today.
  • B) Reduce the dose by half.
  • C) Switch to daily antacid use.
  • D) Continue the current dose indefinitely.

💡 Key Takeaway

Proton pump inhibitors must be tapered after prolonged use to prevent rebound gastric acid hypersecretion.

Show rationale

Abrupt discontinuation of proton pump inhibitors after prolonged use, typically defined as longer than four to eight weeks, frequently causes rebound acid hypersecretion. This occurs because the prolonged acid suppression leads to hypergastrinemia, which stimulates the parietal cells to overproduce acid once the medication is suddenly removed. Tapering the dose by reducing it by half, or switching to every-other-day dosing, allows the gastrin levels to normalize gradually and prevents this uncomfortable flare. Stopping abruptly guarantees a resurgence of severe symptoms. Switching directly to an antacid without tapering the primary medication will not adequately suppress the intense rebound hypersecretion. Continuing the medication indefinitely exposes the patient to unnecessary long-term risks, such as hypomagnesemia or bone fractures, when their erosive esophagitis has already fully resolved.

Question 3

33 of 150. A 50-year-old male completed a 14-day bismuth quadruple therapy for H. pylori four weeks ago. He is currently asymptomatic and off all medications. Which action is most appropriate at this time?

  • A) Order a serum Helicobacter pylori antibody test to confirm.
  • B) Schedule a repeat endoscopy with mucosal biopsy to confirm.
  • C) Advise the patient that no further testing is needed.
  • D) Order a urea breath test to confirm successful eradication.

💡 Key Takeaway

A urea breath test or stool antigen test is required four weeks post-treatment to confirm H. pylori eradication.

Show rationale

Eradication must be confirmed in all treated patients, typically at least four weeks after completing antibiotics and holding PPIs. Option D is the most appropriate noninvasive method to confirm active infection resolution. Option A is incorrect because IgG antibodies remain positive for years following exposure and cannot distinguish active from past infection. Option B is overly invasive for an asymptomatic patient. Option C incorrectly skips the mandatory proof of eradication.

Question 4

46 of 150. An 82-year-old female residing in an assisted living facility reports persistent mid-back aching. A review of her chart reveals she has lost 1.5 inches in height over the last three years. Her medication list includes daily omeprazole use for chronic reflux. Her last bone density scan at age 65 was normal. Which action is most appropriate?

  • A) Reassure her that height loss is normal and defer bone testing.
  • B) Discontinue the omeprazole immediately to reverse ongoing bone density loss.
  • C) Obtain a DXA scan to assess for current osteoporosis progression.
  • D) Start a bisphosphonate empirically based on her documented height loss.

💡 Key Takeaway

Significant height loss in older adults warrants immediate DXA screening to assess for osteoporosis.

Show rationale

An 82-year-old female presenting with significant height loss and chronic proton pump inhibitor use is at high risk for osteoporosis and asymptomatic vertebral compression fractures. Option C is correct because a DXA scan is required to quantify her current bone loss and guide targeted therapy, especially since her last scan was 17 years ago. Option A is incorrect because a 1.5-inch height loss is a clinical red flag for vertebral fractures, not a normal part of aging. Option B is incorrect because abruptly stopping omeprazole can cause severe rebound hypersecretion and does not diagnose or treat the underlying bone issue. Option D is incorrect because empiric treatment without a DXA scan is not the standard of care for this presentation, as baseline metrics are needed to monitor treatment efficacy.

Question 5

8 of 150. A 50-year-old male reports recurrent postprandial right upper quadrant pain lasting two hours after eating fried foods. His examination is benign, and labs show normal liver function tests without gallbladder wall thickening on ultrasound. Which intervention should the nurse practitioner implement?

  • A) Recommend a low-fat diet and refer for elective cholecystectomy.
  • B) Advise rapid weight loss and refer for urgent cholecystectomy.
  • C) Prescribe a bile acid sequestrant and schedule an endoscopy.
  • D) Instruct on a high-fiber diet and order computed tomography.

💡 Key Takeaway

Symptomatic uncomplicated cholelithiasis requires a low-fat diet and referral for elective cholecystectomy.

Show rationale

This patient has classic biliary colic without signs of acute inflammation or obstruction. The appropriate management for symptomatic cholelithiasis is dietary modification—specifically a low-fat diet to prevent gallbladder contraction—and referral for an elective cholecystectomy. Option A is correct. Option B is wrong because rapid weight loss actually increases gallstone formation and urgent surgery isn't indicated without complications. Option C is incorrect; bile acid sequestrants treat bile acid diarrhea, not gallstones, and endoscopy isn't the primary step. Option D is incorrect because ultrasound is already diagnostic; a CT scan adds unnecessary radiation without changing the management plan.

Question 6

52 of 150. A 5-month-old female presents with non-bilious vomiting for two days, accompanied by a low-grade fever and watery stools.

  • A) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
  • B) Acute viral gastroenteritis
  • C) Gastrointestinal reflux disease
  • D) Intussusception bowel obstruction

💡 Key Takeaway

Fever and watery diarrhea accompanying vomiting in older infants strongly suggest a viral etiology.

Show rationale

The combination of vomiting, fever, and watery diarrhea in an older infant strongly points to viral gastroenteritis. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis typically presents much earlier (3 to 6 weeks) with projectile vomiting and lacks fever or diarrhea. Gastroesophageal reflux causes effortless spitting up without acute infectious signs like fever. Intussusception usually presents with severe colicky pain and currant jelly stools, rather than isolated watery diarrhea and low-grade fever.

Question 7

84 of 150. A 49-year-old female reports partial improvement of heartburn after an eight-week trial of daily pantoprazole. She takes it correctly before breakfast and denies any alarm symptoms. Which action is most appropriate?

  • A) Refer her for an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy.
  • B) Switch her to a daily histamine antagonist.
  • C) Increase her pantoprazole to twice daily dosing.
  • D) Order a barium swallow to assess motility.

💡 Key Takeaway

Partial response to daily proton pump inhibitors should be managed by increasing to twice-daily dosing.

Show rationale

It is quite common for patients to experience only a partial response to a standard once-daily proton pump inhibitor. When a patient takes their medication correctly but still has persistent symptoms without any red flags, the recommended step-up therapy is to increase the medication to twice daily dosing. Refer her for an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is incorrect at this stage because she denies any alarm symptoms and has not yet failed an optimized twice-daily regimen. Switching her to a daily histamine antagonist would be inappropriate because it provides weaker acid suppression than her current therapy. Ordering a barium swallow to assess motility is not a standard intervention for uncomplicated GERD and does not help modify the acid suppression plan. Optimizing the current medication dose is the safest and most effective next step.

Question 8

111 of 150. A 52-year-old female reports a burning sensation in her upper abdomen that is worse fifteen minutes after eating. She has recently experienced early satiety and a five-pound weight loss. She admits to chronic naproxen use for osteoarthritis. Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

  • A) Gastric peptic ulceration
  • B) Duodenal peptic ulceration
  • C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease
  • D) Nonulcer functional dyspepsia

💡 Key Takeaway

Gastric ulcers typically present with epigastric pain exacerbated by eating, leading to early satiety and weight loss.

Show rationale

The timing of this patient's pain is the key differentiator. Pain from a gastric ulcer is typically exacerbated by food intake, which often leads to food avoidance, early satiety, and subsequent weight loss. Her chronic NSAID use significantly increases this risk. Duodenal peptic ulceration is incorrect because its pain is usually relieved by eating. Gastroesophageal reflux disease primarily causes retrosternal burning rather than localized epigastric pain tied so closely to the immediate postprandial period. Nonulcer functional dyspepsia can cause early satiety, but the presence of weight loss and chronic NSAID use makes mucosal injury highly likely, ruling out a purely functional disorder.

Question 9

29 of 150. A 35-year-old male reports epigastric pain that awakens him at night and improves immediately after eating meals. Endoscopy confirms a mucosal defect. Which pathophysiologic finding is most likely present in this patient?

  • A) Profound reduction in the basal gastric acid secretion levels
  • B) Increased maximal acid output and rapid gastric emptying rates
  • C) Widespread atrophy of the gastric body and fundus mucosa
  • D) Severe ischemia of the splanchnic vascular circulation capillary bed

💡 Key Takeaway

Duodenal ulcers are typically characterized by increased maximal acid output and rapid gastric emptying.

Show rationale

The patient's symptoms of pain awakening him at night and improving with food strongly suggest a duodenal ulcer. The pathogenesis of duodenal ulcers is typically driven by increased acid output and rapid gastric emptying, which overwhelms the duodenal bicarbonate defense. Option A describes a state of hypochlorhydria, which is more commonly associated with gastric ulcers or autoimmune gastritis, not duodenal ulcers. Option C points toward chronic atrophic gastritis, which predisposes to gastric ulcers or cancer rather than duodenal ulcers. Option D describes the pathogenesis of stress ulcers in critically ill patients, not a classic duodenal ulcer in an otherwise healthy outpatient.

Question 10

34 of 150. A 72-year-old female with osteoporosis and Barrett's esophagus has been taking pantoprazole forty milligrams daily for five years. She presents for a routine follow-up. Which laboratory assessment is most indicated?

  • A) Fasting lipid panel and triglycerides.
  • B) Serum potassium and sodium levels.
  • C) Serum magnesium and vitamin B12.
  • D) Liver function and bilirubin tests.

💡 Key Takeaway

Chronic proton pump inhibitor therapy requires monitoring for potential hypomagnesemia and vitamin B12 deficiency.

Show rationale

Long-term use of proton pump inhibitors significantly reduces gastric acidity, which is necessary for the optimal absorption of several key nutrients. Patients on prolonged therapy are at an increased risk for developing hypomagnesemia and vitamin B12 deficiency, especially after years of continuous use. Checking serum magnesium and B12 levels is directly indicated for this patient to prevent neurological and hematological complications. Proton pump inhibitors do not significantly alter fasting lipid panels or routine liver function tests, making those assessments unnecessary for monitoring medication adverse effects. While potassium and sodium are important electrolytes, they are not specifically depleted by chronic acid suppression therapy in the same way magnesium is. Regular monitoring helps mitigate the silent nutritional deficits associated with chronic therapy.

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FNP · Exam Simulator

3 of 150. A 60-year-old overweight female presents with a chronic dry cough that has persisted for 4 months. S…

A) Prescribe a daily oral antihistamine and
B) Initiate a trial of inhaled corticostero
C) Order comprehensive environmental allerg
D) Recommend an empiric daily proton pump i
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